Nursing Elites

1. A patient is prescribed warfarin therapy for an artificial heart valve. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for a therapeutic effect of warfarin?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor Prothrombin time (PT) when a patient is on warfarin therapy. Warfarin affects blood clotting, and PT is used to assess the therapeutic effect of this medication. Hemoglobin (Choice A) is not directly affected by warfarin therapy and does not reflect its therapeutic effect. Bleeding time (Choice C) measures the time it takes for bleeding to stop after a standardized cut and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

2. A healthcare provider is completing a client's medical history. The client takes Simvastatin. The healthcare provider should identify which of the following disorders as a contraindication to adding Ezetimibe to the client's medications?

• A. History of severe constipation
• B. History of hypertension
• C. Active hepatitis C
• D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ezetimibe is contraindicated in patients with active moderate-to-severe liver disorders, such as active hepatitis C, especially when they are already taking a statin like simvastatin. This combination can increase the risk of liver problems and is not recommended due to the potential for further liver damage. Choices A, B, and D are not directly contraindications for adding Ezetimibe to the client's medications.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

• A. Captopril
• B. Lisinopril
• C. Furosemide
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.

4. A client in a critical care unit is postoperative following a right pneumonectomy. After extubation from the ventilator, in which of the following positions should the client be placed?

• A. Prone
• B. On the nonoperative side
• C. Sims'
• D. Semi-Fowler's

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a pneumonectomy, positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position is crucial for optimal ventilation. This position helps improve lung expansion on the remaining side, facilitating better oxygenation and preventing complications like atelectasis. Placing the client prone, on the nonoperative side, or in Sims' position would not provide the same respiratory benefits post-pneumonectomy.

5. When teaching a patient to take their own pulse, which medication should the nurse instruct them to monitor? (Hint: if pulse is <60 or >100, the patient should contact their healthcare provider before taking the medication)

• A. Digoxin
• B. Lithium
• C. Montelukast
• D. Phenytoin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is essential for patients taking Digoxin to monitor their pulse regularly. If their pulse falls below 60 or exceeds 100 beats per minute, they should contact their healthcare provider immediately. This is crucial due to Digoxin's potential to affect heart rate, making pulse monitoring a vital aspect of patient care while on this medication.

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