ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. When administering an Antiulcer Agent, you should be more cautious when administering it to:
- A. A healthy 27-year-old patient
- B. Patient with renal failure
- C. Elderly patients
- D. Choices B & C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When administering an antiulcer agent, caution is warranted in patients with renal failure due to the potential impact on drug metabolism and excretion. Additionally, elderly patients may be more susceptible to adverse effects from antiulcer agents due to age-related physiological changes. Therefore, it is important to be more cautious when administering antiulcer agents to patients with renal failure and elderly patients. Choice A, a healthy 27-year-old patient, would typically not require as much caution compared to patients with renal failure or elderly patients when administering antiulcer agents. Therefore, choices B & C are the correct options for increased caution.
2. A client is being taught by a healthcare professional about preventing Otitis Externa. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?
- A. Clean the ear with a cotton-tipped swab daily
- B. Place earplugs in the ears when sleeping at night
- C. Use a cool water irrigation solution to remove earwax
- D. Tip the head to the side to remove water from the ears after showering
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To prevent Otitis Externa, it is important to remove water from the ears after showering or swimming. This helps reduce the risk of moisture buildup in the ear canal, which can lead to infection. Cleaning the ear with a cotton-tipped swab daily can actually increase the risk of injury or infection. Placing earplugs in the ears when sleeping at night may trap moisture and promote bacterial growth. Using a cool water irrigation solution to remove earwax is not recommended as it can disrupt the natural balance of the ear canal.
3. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?
- A. Ketamine
- B. Naltrexone
- C. Flumazenil
- D. Fluvoxamine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine antagonist that competitively reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation or respiratory depression caused by benzodiazepines, administering Flumazenil can help reverse the effects and restore the client's consciousness and respiratory drive. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist and not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to counteract benzodiazepine sedation.
4. A client with Bipolar disorder has a new prescription for Carbamazepine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
- A. This medication can safely be taken during pregnancy.
- B. Eliminate grapefruit juice from your diet.
- C. You will need to have a complete blood count and carbamazepine levels drawn periodically.
- D. Notify your provider if you develop a rash.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Eliminate grapefruit juice from your diet." Grapefruit juice affects carbamazepine metabolism and should be avoided. It can lead to increased levels of the medication, potentially causing toxicity. Monitoring carbamazepine blood levels and the complete blood count (CBC) is essential to ensure the medication's efficacy and safety. Although choice A is incorrect (This medication can safely be taken during pregnancy), carbamazepine is classified as a Pregnancy Category D drug, which means there is positive evidence of human fetal risk. Choice D (Notify your provider if you develop a rash) is also important because carbamazepine can cause serious adverse effects like Stevens-Johnson syndrome, which can be life-threatening. Regular monitoring and prompt reporting of any rash are crucial. Therefore, choices C and D are also relevant instructions for the client.
5. A healthcare professional is planning to administer IV Alteplase to a client who is demonstrating manifestations of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional plan to take?
- A. Administer IM Enoxaparin along with the Alteplase dose.
- B. Hold direct pressure on puncture sites for up to 30 min.
- C. Administer Aminocaproic acid IV prior to alteplase infusion.
- D. Prepare to administer Alteplase within 8 hr of manifestation onset.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention when administering IV Alteplase is to hold direct pressure on puncture sites for 10 to 30 minutes or until oozing of blood stops. This helps prevent bleeding complications associated with thrombolytic therapy. Administering IM Enoxaparin is not indicated with Alteplase, as it is an anticoagulant rather than a thrombolytic agent. Aminocaproic acid is not typically administered prior to alteplase infusion in the context of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. While timely administration of Alteplase is important, the specific timeframe within which it should be administered may vary based on the clinical situation, so a strict 8-hour window is not universally applicable.
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