Nursing Elites

1. A client who is withdrawing from alcohol has been prescribed Propranolol. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Increases the risk for seizure activity.
• B. Provides a form of aversion therapy.
• C. Decreases cravings.
• D. Results in mild hypertension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct information the nurse should include in the teaching is that Propranolol decreases cravings for alcohol. Propranolol is used as an adjunct medication during alcohol withdrawal to help reduce the desire for alcohol. Choice A is incorrect as Propranolol does not increase the risk for seizure activity; it can actually be used to prevent alcohol withdrawal seizures. Choice B is also incorrect as Propranolol does not provide aversion therapy. Choice D is incorrect as Propranolol is not known to result in mild hypertension.

2. A client has a new prescription for transdermal patches. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the instructions?

• A. I will clean the site with an alcohol swab before applying the patch.
• B. I will rotate the application sites weekly.
• C. I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair.
• D. I will place the new patch where the old patch was.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because applying the patch to an area of skin without hair ensures better absorption of the medication. Hair can interfere with the patch's adherence and effectiveness. It is important for the client to choose a clean, hairless area for proper medication delivery. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Cleaning the site with an alcohol swab is a good practice but does not specifically indicate understanding of proper patch application. Rotating application sites weekly is important to prevent skin irritation but is not directly related to applying the patch to an area of skin without hair. Placing the new patch where the old patch was may lead to skin irritation and poor absorption of the medication.

3. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving capecitabine, as it is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's white blood cell count and assess for signs of infection during treatment. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use. Therefore, monitoring for neutropenia is the priority in this scenario.

4. A client has a new prescription for Brimonidine ophthalmic drops and wears soft contact lenses. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. This medication can stain your contacts.
• B. This medication can cause your pupils to constrict.
• C. This medication can absorb into your contacts.
• D. This medication can slow your heart rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Brimonidine can absorb into soft contact lenses. To prevent this, the client should remove their contacts, instill the medication, and wait at least 15 minutes before putting the contacts back in to avoid potential absorption of the medication by the lenses. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Brimonidine's main concern with contact lenses is its absorption into the lenses rather than staining contacts, causing pupil constriction, or affecting heart rate.

5. What is the primary action of warfarin as an anticoagulant?

• A. Prevents the formation of blood clots
• B. Dissolves existing blood clots
• C. Dilates coronary arteries
• D. Treats rhythm disturbances

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Prevents the formation of blood clots." Warfarin acts as an anticoagulant by inhibiting the synthesis of certain clotting factors in the liver. This action reduces the blood's ability to clot, making it effective in preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice B is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots; it prevents their formation. Choice C is incorrect because warfarin's primary action is not to dilate coronary arteries. Choice D is incorrect as warfarin is not used to treat rhythm disturbances, but rather to prevent clot formation.

Similar Questions