Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed an ACE Inhibitor for hypertension. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

• A. Avoid salt substitutes.
• B. Take this medication at bedtime.
• C. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• D. Limit your fluid intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid salt substitutes.' ACE Inhibitors can increase potassium levels, so clients should avoid salt substitutes that contain potassium to prevent hyperkalemia, which is a potential side effect of ACE Inhibitors. Choice B 'Take this medication at bedtime' is incorrect as ACE Inhibitors are usually taken in the morning to avoid nocturnal diuresis. Choice C 'Avoid foods high in potassium' is incorrect because although ACE Inhibitors can increase potassium levels, clients are generally encouraged to consume potassium-rich foods in moderation unless contraindicated. Choice D 'Limit your fluid intake' is also incorrect as ACE Inhibitors do not typically require fluid restrictions unless specified by a healthcare provider for other reasons.

2. How is lithium typically administered?

• A. Intravenously
• B. Intramuscularly
• C. Orally
• D. Sublingually

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lithium is typically administered orally to ensure proper absorption and distribution in the body. By taking lithium orally, it allows the medication to be absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract and distributed effectively. Intravenous and intramuscular routes are not commonly used for lithium administration as they can lead to rapid, unpredictable absorption and increase the risk of toxicity. Sublingual administration is also not the typical route for lithium, as it is usually taken orally for consistent and controlled absorption.

3. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema. Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely observe the client's lower extremities for any signs of swelling, which could indicate the development of edema. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because Nifedipine is used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is unrelated to Nifedipine's common adverse effects. Choice D, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Nifedipine use.

4. Which of the following is not a side effect associated with Prednisone toxicity?

• A. Cataracts
• B. Hypotension
• C. Psychosis
• D. Acne

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prednisone toxicity is not typically associated with hypotension; instead, it can lead to hypertension. Cataracts, psychosis, and acne are known side effects of Prednisone toxicity.

5. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should be monitored by the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. PT
• B. aPTT
• C. INR
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. It should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the therapeutic range of heparin is achieved to prevent clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Choice A (PT) is incorrect as it is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C (INR) is also incorrect as it is primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D (Platelet count) is not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

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