a nurse is preparing to administer cyclophosphamide iv to a client who has hodgkins disease which of the following medications should the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A client with Hodgkin's disease is receiving Cyclophosphamide IV. Which medication should be administered concurrently to prevent an adverse effect of Cyclophosphamide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mesna, an uroprotectant agent, is administered with nitrogen mustard chemotherapy drugs like Cyclophosphamide to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis, a common adverse effect. Mesna works by binding to and inactivating the toxic metabolites of Cyclophosphamide in the bladder, thereby reducing the risk of bladder toxicity.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Filgrastim for the first time to a client who has just undergone a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention when preparing to administer Filgrastim is to discard the vial after removing one dose of the medication. This practice helps prevent contamination and ensures the medication's effectiveness. Reusing the vial can lead to contamination and compromise the sterility of the medication, putting the client at risk. Therefore, it is crucial to follow proper aseptic technique and discard the vial after withdrawing the prescribed dose.

3. A client has a new prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as a contraindication to this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated for clients with asthma. Asthma is a contraindication for Propranolol due to the potential of worsening bronchoconstriction and causing respiratory distress in individuals with this condition. Diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and glaucoma are not contraindications for Propranolol.

4. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a potentially dangerous condition. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause potassium retention, leading to hyperkalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in serious consequences such as cardiac dysrhythmias. The healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider, withhold the medication, and take appropriate actions to prevent complications. Monitoring and managing potassium levels are crucial in clients receiving spironolactone. The other options do not directly relate to the potential adverse effects of spironolactone and are within normal limits, making them less urgent to report.

5. A client has a new prescription for Levothyroxine to treat hypothyroidism. Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for Levothyroxine to treat hypothyroidism is not to discontinue the medication without consulting the provider. Abrupt cessation could lead to the return of hypothyroid symptoms, emphasizing the importance of medical guidance when considering any changes to the treatment plan. Choice A is incorrect because Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach, typically in the morning. Choice B is incorrect as it contradicts the timing of administration for Levothyroxine. Choice C is inaccurate as it usually takes a few weeks for the full effects of Levothyroxine to be seen, not just 1 week.

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