Nursing Elites

1. A patient has been taking hydrocodone, an opioid analgesic for their moderate pain, and they have taken more than the prescribed dose. What should you administer as the antidote if they experience toxicity?

• A. Naloxone
• B. N-acetylcysteine
• C. Atropine
• D. Digoxin immune Fab

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone is the specific antidote for opioid toxicity. It works by blocking the effects of opioids on the central nervous system, thereby reversing symptoms like respiratory depression and sedation. N-acetylcysteine is used for acetaminophen overdose, while atropine is indicated for certain types of poisonings. Digoxin immune Fab is used for digoxin toxicity. Therefore, in the case of opioid toxicity due to hydrocodone overdose, naloxone is the appropriate antidote.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer heparin 15,000 units subcutaneously every 12 hours. The available heparin injection is 20,000 units/mL. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional administer per dose?

• A. 0.8 mL
• B. 0.75 mL
• C. 0.5 mL
• D. 1 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: Desired dose / Concentration = Volume to administer. In this case, (15,000 units / 20,000 units/mL) = 0.75 mL. Since the volume needs to be rounded up to the nearest tenth, the correct answer is 0.8 mL. Choice B (0.75 mL) is incorrect because it does not account for rounding up the volume. Choices C (0.5 mL) and D (1 mL) are incorrect as they do not reflect the precise calculation based on the given concentration and desired dose.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin 1 g by intermittent IV bolus. Available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 45 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver?

• A. 22 gtt/min
• B. 24 gtt/min
• C. 20 gtt/min
• D. 18 gtt/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), you can use the formula: (Volume in mL x Drop factor) / Time in minutes = Flow rate in gtt/min. In this case, it would be (100 mL x 10 gtt/mL) / 45 min = 22 gtt/min. Therefore, the healthcare professional should adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver 22 gtt/min. Choice B, 24 gtt/min, is incorrect as it results from a miscalculation. Choices C and D, 20 gtt/min and 18 gtt/min respectively, are also incorrect calculations based on the given parameters.

4. Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug Warfarin?

• A. Kidney
• B. Liver
• C. Blood
• D. Heart

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Warfarin primarily affects the liver where it inhibits the synthesis of clotting factors.

5. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?

• A. Intestinal ileus
• B. Neutropenia
• C. Delirium
• D. Hyperthermia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV nitroprusside is administered at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, resulting in mental status changes such as delirium. Monitoring thiocyanate levels during therapy is crucial to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL to prevent this adverse reaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because nitroprusside does not typically cause intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia as adverse reactions.

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