Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a client about preventing Otitis Externa, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Clean the ear with a cotton-tipped swab daily.
• B. Place earplugs in the ears when sleeping at night.
• C. Use a cool water irrigation solution to remove earwax.
• D. Tip the head to the side to remove water from the ears after showering.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To prevent Otitis Externa, the nurse should instruct the client to tip the head to the side to allow water to drain out after showering or swimming. This helps to prevent moisture buildup in the ear canal, reducing the risk of developing Otitis Externa, commonly known as swimmer's ear.

2. A client is prescribed Diltiazem. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its negative chronotropic properties, slowing down the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia by regularly assessing the heart rate to prevent potential complications. Monitoring for tachycardia (choice A) is incorrect as diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia. Hypertension (choice C) is not a typical finding to monitor for with diltiazem use. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is not directly associated with diltiazem administration.

3. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?

• A. I'll take this medicine with my meals.
• B. I'll take this medicine 30 minutes before I eat.
• C. I'll take this medicine just before I go to bed.
• D. I'll take this medicine as soon as I wake up in the morning.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. To ensure the insulin is available when food is digested, the client should take this medication 30 minutes before each meal. This timing aligns the medication with the expected postprandial rise in blood glucose levels, optimizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Repaglinide with meals, just before bed, or as soon as waking up does not align with the medication's mechanism of action and timing needed for optimal effectiveness.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for Metoprolol. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. This medication may make you feel dizzy at first.
• B. You should avoid foods that are high in fat.
• C. Take the medication in the morning.
• D. You may experience a rapid heart rate while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can cause dizziness, especially when starting the medication. The nurse should inform the client to change positions slowly to avoid dizziness and falls.

5. What is a severe adverse effect of warfarin?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Arrhythmias
• C. Blurred vision
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A severe adverse effect of warfarin is bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting blood clotting factors, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Excessive bleeding can occur internally or externally, and it is crucial for individuals taking warfarin to be aware of this potential complication and seek medical attention if they experience any signs of bleeding. Arrhythmias, blurred vision, and bradycardia are not typically associated with warfarin use, making them incorrect choices.

Similar Questions