ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. When teaching a client about preventing Otitis Externa, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Clean the ear with a cotton-tipped swab daily.
- B. Place earplugs in the ears when sleeping at night.
- C. Use a cool water irrigation solution to remove earwax.
- D. Tip the head to the side to remove water from the ears after showering.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To prevent Otitis Externa, the nurse should instruct the client to tip the head to the side to allow water to drain out after showering or swimming. This helps to prevent moisture buildup in the ear canal, reducing the risk of developing Otitis Externa, commonly known as swimmer's ear.
2. A patient is receiving spironolactone for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can lead to hyperkalemia due to its mechanism of action. Hyperkalemia, or elevated potassium levels, can result in serious cardiac complications and requires immediate medical attention. Therefore, the nurse should promptly report any signs or symptoms of hyperkalemia to prevent potential adverse outcomes in the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone is not associated with hypernatremia, hyponatremia, or hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia is the critical finding that the nurse should report in a patient receiving spironolactone.
3. What is the classification of furosemide?
- A. Loop diuretic
- B. Anticoagulant
- C. Iron supplement
- D. Anticonvulsant
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is classified as a loop diuretic, not an anticoagulant, iron supplement, or anticonvulsant. Loop diuretics, like furosemide, act in the loop of Henle in the kidney to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption, leading to increased urine output. This mechanism makes them effective in treating conditions such as edema and hypertension. Therefore, the correct classification for furosemide is a loop diuretic (Choice A).
4. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Weight gain
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. This cough is a result of increased bradykinin levels due to ACE inhibition. The client should be educated to monitor for a dry cough and notify the healthcare provider if it occurs, as it may indicate the need for a medication adjustment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, diarrhea, and nausea are not commonly associated adverse effects of Enalapril.
5. Which of the following drugs is associated with hepatitis as a reaction?
- A. Valproic acid
- B. Quinidine
- C. Isoniazid
- D. Ethosuximide
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hepatitis is a known side effect of isoniazid. It is important to monitor patients on isoniazid for signs of liver damage, including hepatitis, as part of their treatment regimen for tuberculosis.
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