ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. When teaching a client about preventing Otitis Externa, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Clean the ear with a cotton-tipped swab daily.
- B. Place earplugs in the ears when sleeping at night.
- C. Use a cool water irrigation solution to remove earwax.
- D. Tip the head to the side to remove water from the ears after showering.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To prevent Otitis Externa, the nurse should instruct the client to tip the head to the side to allow water to drain out after showering or swimming. This helps to prevent moisture buildup in the ear canal, reducing the risk of developing Otitis Externa, commonly known as swimmer's ear.
2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health record of a client who asks about using Propranolol to treat hypertension. The provider should recognize which of the following conditions is a contraindication for taking propranolol?
- A. Asthma
- B. Glaucoma
- C. Hypertension
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Asthma. Propranolol is a nonselective beta-adrenergic blocker that blocks both beta1 and beta2 receptors. Blockade of beta2 receptors in the lungs causes bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated in clients with asthma. Using propranolol in asthma can exacerbate bronchoconstriction and potentially lead to respiratory distress or exacerbation of asthma symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Glaucoma, hypertension, and tachycardia are not contraindications for taking propranolol. In fact, propranolol is commonly used to treat hypertension and tachycardia.
3. A client with a prescription for Vasopressin to treat Diabetes Insipidus is being taught by a healthcare professional. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will reduce my sodium intake.
- B. I should increase my water intake.
- C. I will notify my doctor if I develop chest pain.
- D. I should take this medication with food.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because Vasopressin can cause vasoconstriction, potentially leading to chest pain. It is crucial for the client to inform their healthcare provider immediately if they experience chest pain while on Vasopressin therapy to address any potential cardiovascular complications promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While maintaining adequate hydration is essential with Vasopressin therapy due to its antidiuretic effect, increasing water intake is not the most critical aspect to monitor. Reducing sodium intake may be beneficial in some cases but is not directly related to the potential side effects of Vasopressin. Taking the medication with food is not a specific instruction for Vasopressin administration.
4. A client has a new prescription for Iron supplements. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take the medication with a glass of milk.
- B. Avoid taking the medication with orange juice.
- C. Increase fiber intake to prevent constipation.
- D. Expect stools to be bright red.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Increase fiber intake to prevent constipation.' Iron supplements commonly cause constipation as a side effect. Increasing fiber intake can help alleviate this issue by promoting regular bowel movements and preventing constipation. Choice A is incorrect as iron absorption is hindered when taken with milk. Choice B is not directly related to iron supplements. Choice D is incorrect as iron supplements do not typically cause bright red stools.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?
- A. Butorphanol has a lower risk of abuse than morphine.
- B. Butorphanol causes a lower incidence of respiratory depression than morphine.
- C. Butorphanol can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
- D. Butorphanol can cause abstinence syndrome in opioid-dependent clients.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Butorphanol is an opioid agonist/antagonist that can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent individuals. Symptoms of abstinence syndrome can include abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. This occurs because butorphanol competes with and displaces opioid agonists from receptors, leading to withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent clients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol does not have a lower risk of abuse than morphine, it can cause respiratory depression similar to other opioids, and although it is an opioid antagonist, it does not get reversed by opioid antagonists.
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