a nurse is assessing a client during transfusion of a unit of whole bloo the client develops a cough shortness of breath elevated blood pressure and
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. During a unit of whole blood transfusion, a client develops a cough, shortness of breath, elevated blood pressure, and distended neck veins. The healthcare professional should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is exhibiting signs of fluid overload, which can occur during blood transfusion. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is commonly prescribed in such situations to help relieve manifestations of circulatory overload by promoting diuresis and reducing fluid volume. Therefore, the correct choice is C - Furosemide. Epinephrine (Choice A) is not indicated for fluid overload but for severe allergic reactions. Lorazepam (Choice B) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety or sedation, not for fluid overload. Diphenhydramine (Choice D) is an antihistamine often used for allergic reactions, not for fluid overload.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has asthma and is beginning to take montelukast. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Montelukast is typically taken once daily in the evening for long-term control of asthma symptoms. It helps prevent asthma attacks by reducing inflammation in the airways. While montelukast can also be used for exercise-induced bronchospasm in some cases, it is generally not a rescue medication and should be taken regularly, not on an as-needed basis.

3. Which of the following is not a side effect of the vasodilator Nifedipine?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sexual dysfunction is not a common side effect of vasodilators such as Nifedipine. Nausea, flushed appearance, and vertigo are more commonly reported side effects associated with this medication. It's essential for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential side effects to monitor and manage them effectively in patients prescribed with Nifedipine.

4. A client has ordered a thrombolytic medication for the treatment of CVA. Which type of stroke should not be treated with a thrombolytic?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thrombolytic medications are used to dissolve blood clots. In the case of a hemorrhagic stroke, where there is bleeding in the brain, the use of thrombolytics can worsen the condition by increasing bleeding. Therefore, hemorrhagic strokes should not be treated with thrombolytic medications.

5. A client has an infection and a prescription for gentamicin intermittent IV bolus every 8 hr. A peak and trough is required with the next dose. Which of the following actions should be taken to obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To obtain an accurate gentamicin serum level, the trough should be drawn immediately before administering the medication, and the peak level should be drawn 30 minutes after the dose. This timing allows for the assessment of the lowest and highest drug concentrations in the bloodstream, ensuring therapeutic levels are achieved while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Choice A is correct as it follows this timing protocol. Choices B and D have incorrect timing for peak and trough levels, which would not provide an accurate representation of the drug's concentration in the bloodstream.

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