ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. During a unit of whole blood transfusion, a client develops a cough, shortness of breath, elevated blood pressure, and distended neck veins. The healthcare professional should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Epinephrine
- B. Lorazepam
- C. Furosemide
- D. Diphenhydramine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is exhibiting signs of fluid overload, which can occur during blood transfusion. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is commonly prescribed in such situations to help relieve manifestations of circulatory overload by promoting diuresis and reducing fluid volume. Therefore, the correct choice is C - Furosemide. Epinephrine (Choice A) is not indicated for fluid overload but for severe allergic reactions. Lorazepam (Choice B) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety or sedation, not for fluid overload. Diphenhydramine (Choice D) is an antihistamine often used for allergic reactions, not for fluid overload.
2. A healthcare provider is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Bisacodyl suppositories. Which of the following information should the provider include?
- A. Expect results within 15 to 60 minutes.
- B. Insert the suppository as directed by the healthcare provider.
- C. Keep the suppository at room temperature.
- D. Expect rectal burning.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When educating a client about Bisacodyl suppositories, it is important to include information about the common side effects. Rectal burning is a frequent side effect that can occur after using Bisacodyl suppositories, so the client should be informed to expect this discomfort. The onset of action for Bisacodyl suppositories is typically within 15 to 60 minutes, so the client should expect results relatively quickly, not in 6 to 12 hours. It is essential to follow the healthcare provider's instructions on how to insert the suppository correctly. Keeping the suppository at room temperature is sufficient; refrigeration is not required. Therefore, option D is the correct choice as it addresses a common side effect and prepares the client for potential discomfort. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not focus on a significant side effect, proper administration, or storage requirements.
3. A client with Hodgkin's disease is receiving Cyclophosphamide IV. Which medication should be administered concurrently to prevent an adverse effect of Cyclophosphamide?
- A. Uroprotectant agent, such as mesna
- B. Opioid, such as morphine
- C. Loop diuretic, such as furosemide
- D. H1 receptor antagonist, such as diphenhydramine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Mesna, an uroprotectant agent, is administered with nitrogen mustard chemotherapy drugs like Cyclophosphamide to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis, a common adverse effect. Mesna works by binding to and inactivating the toxic metabolites of Cyclophosphamide in the bladder, thereby reducing the risk of bladder toxicity.
4. A client has a new prescription for Folic Acid. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Expect a metallic taste in your mouth.
- C. Increase your intake of green, leafy vegetables.
- D. Avoid citrus fruits.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Increase your intake of green, leafy vegetables.' Folic acid is naturally found in green, leafy vegetables. By increasing the intake of these vegetables, the client can supplement their folic acid levels. This dietary adjustment supports the client in meeting the prescription requirements and enhances the overall health benefits of folic acid. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to increasing folic acid intake as required by the prescription.
5. A client with HIV is starting therapy with zidovudine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Ringing in the ears
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Fatigue is a common adverse effect of zidovudine due to its impact on bone marrow, leading to anemia. Zidovudine is known to cause bone marrow suppression, resulting in decreased production of red blood cells and subsequent fatigue.
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