ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. During a unit of whole blood transfusion, a client develops a cough, shortness of breath, elevated blood pressure, and distended neck veins. The healthcare professional should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Epinephrine
- B. Lorazepam
- C. Furosemide
- D. Diphenhydramine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is exhibiting signs of fluid overload, which can occur during blood transfusion. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is commonly prescribed in such situations to help relieve manifestations of circulatory overload by promoting diuresis and reducing fluid volume. Therefore, the correct choice is C - Furosemide. Epinephrine (Choice A) is not indicated for fluid overload but for severe allergic reactions. Lorazepam (Choice B) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety or sedation, not for fluid overload. Diphenhydramine (Choice D) is an antihistamine often used for allergic reactions, not for fluid overload.
2. A client has a new prescription for Levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Take this medication at bedtime.
- C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Take this medication with antacids.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach to increase absorption and efficacy. Taking it with food or antacids can interfere with its absorption, affecting the medication's effectiveness.
3. What is a common side effect of Albuterol?
- A. Paradoxical Bronchospasm
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Seizures
- D. Vision Loss
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A common side effect of Albuterol is paradoxical bronchospasm, a condition where the airways become more constricted instead of relaxing. This can be a serious adverse reaction to the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not commonly associated with Albuterol use. Diarrhea and seizures are not typically reported side effects of Albuterol, and vision loss is not a recognized side effect of this medication.
4. A client's plasma Lithium level is 2.1 mEq/L. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Perform immediate gastric lavage.
- B. Prepare the client for hemodialysis.
- C. Administer an additional oral dose of lithium.
- D. Request a stat repeat of the laboratory test.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with a plasma lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L, immediate gastric lavage is appropriate for severe toxicity. Gastric lavage can help lower the client's lithium level by removing the unabsorbed lithium from the stomach.
5. Which of the following types of insulin is classified as 'long-acting'?
- A. Lispro (Humalog)
- B. NPH (Humulin N)
- C. Regular insulin (Humulin R)
- D. Glargine (Lantus)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Glargine (Lantus). Glargine is classified as a long-acting insulin due to its slow, steady release over an extended period, making it suitable for basal insulin requirements. It has a duration of action that can last up to 24 hours, helping to maintain stable blood sugar levels throughout the day. Lispro (Humalog) is a rapid-acting insulin, NPH (Humulin N) is an intermediate-acting insulin, and Regular insulin (Humulin R) is a short-acting insulin, so they are not classified as long-acting insulins.
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