Nursing Elites

1. During a unit of whole blood transfusion, a client develops a cough, shortness of breath, elevated blood pressure, and distended neck veins. The healthcare professional should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Epinephrine
• B. Lorazepam
• C. Furosemide
• D. Diphenhydramine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is exhibiting signs of fluid overload, which can occur during blood transfusion. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is commonly prescribed in such situations to help relieve manifestations of circulatory overload by promoting diuresis and reducing fluid volume. Therefore, the correct choice is C - Furosemide. Epinephrine (Choice A) is not indicated for fluid overload but for severe allergic reactions. Lorazepam (Choice B) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety or sedation, not for fluid overload. Diphenhydramine (Choice D) is an antihistamine often used for allergic reactions, not for fluid overload.

2. How can the nurse best explain the difference between angina and a myocardial infarction to a client presenting with severe chest pain?

• A. “Angina usually resolves with rest, and is rarely fatal, while a myocardial infarction necessitates immediate treatment and can be life-threatening.”
• B. “There is a clear distinction between the two. You will receive treatment based on the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction.”
• C. “Both conditions result from a clot obstructing the coronary arteries. Angina occurs with the blockage of a small vessel, whereas a myocardial infarction occurs with a blockage of a large vessel.”
• D. “Angina may not cause as intense chest pain, whereas a myocardial infarction always presents with severe chest pain.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When educating a client about the differences between angina and a myocardial infarction, it is crucial to emphasize key distinguishing factors. Angina typically improves with rest and is not usually life-threatening, whereas a myocardial infarction requires urgent intervention as it can be life-threatening. This explanation helps the client understand the urgency and severity associated with a myocardial infarction compared to angina.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?

• A. Use an electric shaver to remove excess hair on the extremity.
• B. Select the antecubital area to insert the IV catheter.
• C. Distend the veins by using a blood pressure cuff.
• D. Instruct the client to keep the extremity still during the procedure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Distending the veins using a blood pressure cuff is essential for facilitating visualization and access to the veins during IV catheter insertion. This technique helps healthcare professionals identify suitable veins, reducing the risk of complications like infiltration or hematoma formation. Using an electric shaver to remove hair on the extremity (Choice A) may increase the risk of micro-cuts and introduce infection. Selecting the antecubital area (Choice B) may not always be appropriate, as vein condition and accessibility vary among older adult clients. Instructing the client to keep the extremity still (Choice D) is important but is not directly related to preparing for IV therapy.

4. A client is taking Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?

• A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• B. Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
• C. Chloride level of 100 mEq/L
• D. Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels). A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is considered elevated and should be reported to the provider for further assessment and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are not directly affected by Spironolactone and do not typically require immediate reporting unless there are other underlying issues or specific instructions for those electrolytes.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 8 mL
• B. 10 mL
• C. 6 mL
• D. 12 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, 80 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B, 10 mL, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choices C and D, 6 mL and 12 mL respectively, are also incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the provided concentration and dose.

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