Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for transdermal patches. Which statement should the client make to indicate understanding of the instructions?

• A. I will clean the site with an alcohol swab before applying the patch.
• B. I will rotate the application sites weekly.
• C. I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair.
• D. I will place the new patch on the site of the old patch.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Applying the patch to a hairless area of skin is essential for optimal medication absorption. Hair can interfere with the patch's adherence and effectiveness. It is important for the client to choose a site without hair to ensure proper delivery of the medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because cleaning the site with an alcohol swab (Choice A) is a good practice but not the most crucial aspect for transdermal patch application. Rotating application sites weekly (Choice B) is more relevant for injections to prevent skin irritation or breakdown. Placing the new patch on the site of the old patch (Choice D) can lead to skin irritation and poor absorption due to a build-up of medication.

2. A client has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid taking aspirin while on this medication.
• B. Take this medication with food.
• C. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• D. Take this medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid taking aspirin while on Clopidogrel. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that can increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin and other NSAIDs can further potentiate this risk, so they should be avoided while taking Clopidogrel to reduce the chance of bleeding complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. There is no specific instruction to take Clopidogrel with food or at bedtime. Avoiding foods high in potassium is not directly related to Clopidogrel use.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is prescribed Furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum magnesium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased potassium excretion. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias associated with hypokalemia. Choice B, serum calcium, is incorrect because Furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels. Choice C, serum sodium, is less commonly affected by Furosemide use. Choice D, serum magnesium, is not the primary electrolyte affected by Furosemide, although magnesium levels may be affected indirectly.

4. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take one tablet at the first sign of chest pain.
• B. If pain is not relieved, take another tablet in 10 minutes.
• C. You can take up to five tablets in 15 minutes.
• D. Swallow the tablet with water.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to take one tablet at the first sign of chest pain. If the pain persists after 5 minutes, the client should call 911 and take a second tablet. Choice A is correct because taking one tablet at the onset of chest pain helps to relieve symptoms by dilating blood vessels and improving blood flow to the heart. Choices B and C are incorrect as they suggest taking multiple tablets without waiting for the initial dose to take effect, which can lead to hypotension and other adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect as nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should not be swallowed but instead placed under the tongue for rapid absorption.

5. A client is receiving long-term aspirin therapy. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

• A. Hemorrhagic stroke
• B. Thromboembolic stroke
• C. Iron deficiency anemia
• D. Neutropenia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemorrhagic stroke. Long-term aspirin therapy can lead to hemorrhagic stroke due to its antiplatelet effects, which increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, which can predispose the individual to bleeding complications, including hemorrhagic stroke. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aspirin therapy is more likely to cause bleeding complications rather than thromboembolic events, iron deficiency anemia, or neutropenia.

Similar Questions