Nursing Elites

1. A client requests information on the use of Feverfew. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. It is used to treat skin infections.
• B. It can decrease the frequency of migraine headaches.
• C. It can lessen nasal congestion in the common cold.
• D. It can relieve nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is B: Feverfew is commonly used to decrease the frequency of migraine headaches. However, it is important to note that it has not been proven to relieve an existing migraine headache. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as Feverfew is not typically used for treating skin infections, lessening nasal congestion in the common cold, or relieving nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.

2. While caring for a client receiving IV heparin, which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Thrombocytopenia
• D. Leukopenia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelet count, is a known adverse effect associated with heparin therapy. It can lead to an increased risk of bleeding and should be closely monitored during treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension is not typically associated with heparin use; hyperglycemia is not a common adverse effect of heparin; leukopenia is not a primary side effect of heparin therapy.

3. How should a client prevent systemic absorption of Timolol eye drops according to the nurse's instructions?

• A. Bony orbit
• B. Nasolacrimal duct
• C. Conjunctival sac
• D. Outer canthus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique to prevent systemic absorption of eye drops is to press on the nasolacrimal duct while instilling them. By doing so, the lacrimal punctum gets temporarily blocked, reducing drainage into the nasolacrimal duct and systemic circulation. This method helps enhance the localized effect of the medication and decreases the risk of systemic side effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not play a direct role in preventing systemic absorption of the eye drops.

4. A client in the operating room received a dose of Succinylcholine. During the operation, the client suddenly develops rigidity, and their body temperature begins to rise. The healthcare provider should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Neostigmine
• B. Naloxone
• C. Dantrolene
• D. Vecuronium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity and a sudden rise in temperature are manifestations of malignant hyperthermia. Dantrolene acts on skeletal muscles to reduce metabolic activity and treat malignant hyperthermia effectively. Neostigmine (choice A) is used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers, not to treat malignant hyperthermia. Naloxone (choice B) is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose. Vecuronium (choice D) is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker and is not used to treat malignant hyperthermia.

5. A client is being taught about a new prescription for Celecoxib. Which of the following information should be included in the teaching?

• A. Increases the risk for a myocardial infarction
• B. Decreases the risk of stroke
• C. Inhibits COX-1
• D. Increases platelet aggregation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Increases the risk for a myocardial infarction.' Celecoxib, a COX-2 inhibitor, increases the risk for a myocardial infarction due to its effect on suppressing vasodilation, which can lead to this adverse cardiovascular event. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Celecoxib does not decrease the risk of stroke, inhibit COX-1, or increase platelet aggregation. It's crucial for the nurse to educate the client about the increased risk for a myocardial infarction when taking Celecoxib and emphasize monitoring for signs of heart issues and the importance of seeking prompt medical attention if symptoms occur.

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