ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A client requests information on the use of Feverfew. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. It is used to treat skin infections.
- B. It can decrease the frequency of migraine headaches.
- C. It can lessen nasal congestion in the common cold.
- D. It can relieve nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is B: Feverfew is commonly used to decrease the frequency of migraine headaches. However, it is important to note that it has not been proven to relieve an existing migraine headache. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as Feverfew is not typically used for treating skin infections, lessening nasal congestion in the common cold, or relieving nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.
2. In reviewing a client's health record, which condition would be a contraindication for using Propranolol to treat hypertension?
- A. Asthma
- B. Glaucoma
- C. Hypertension
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Propranolol is a nonselective beta-adrenergic blocker that blocks both beta1 and beta2 receptors. Blocking beta2 receptors in the lungs can lead to bronchoconstriction, making it unsuitable for clients with asthma. Therefore, asthma is a contraindication for taking Propranolol. Glaucoma, hypertension, and tachycardia are not contraindications for using Propranolol to treat hypertension.
3. A client taking nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for angina asks the nurse to explain possible side effects. What should NOT be included in client teaching?
- A. Reflex tachycardia
- B. Dizziness
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hyponatremia is not a common side effect associated with nitroglycerin use. Nitroglycerin typically causes side effects such as reflex tachycardia, dizziness, and hypotension due to its vasodilatory effects. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to educate the client about these potential side effects to promote understanding and appropriate management.
4. A client is being taught about taking Tetracycline to treat a GI infection caused by Helicobacter pylori. Which of the following statements should indicate to the nurse that the client understands the instructions?
- A. I will take this medication with 8 ounces of milk.
- B. I will inform my doctor if I experience diarrhea.
- C. I can discontinue this medication when I feel completely well.
- D. I can take this medication just before bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Diarrhea can indicate the development of a suprainfection, which can be serious. Therefore, it is essential for the client to notify the healthcare provider if they experience diarrhea while taking Tetracycline to treat a GI infection caused by Helicobacter pylori. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Tetracycline with milk can reduce its absorption, discontinuing the medication prematurely can lead to treatment failure, and taking it just before bedtime may increase the risk of esophageal irritation due to the potential reflux of the medication.
5. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving capecitabine, as it is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's white blood cell count and assess for signs of infection during treatment. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use. Therefore, monitoring for neutropenia is the priority in this scenario.
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