a nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed isosorbide mononitrate for chronic stable angina and develops reflex tachycardi which of the followi
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients who develop tachycardia, such as in the case of reflex tachycardia induced by Isosorbide Mononitrate, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario. Furosemide (Choice A) is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and edema, not for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor primarily used for hypertension and heart failure, not for reflex tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used for chronic angina but does not specifically address reflex tachycardia.

2. A client has a new prescription for Folic Acid. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Increase your intake of green, leafy vegetables.' Folic acid is naturally found in green, leafy vegetables. By increasing the intake of these vegetables, the client can supplement their folic acid levels. This dietary adjustment supports the client in meeting the prescription requirements and enhances the overall health benefits of folic acid. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to increasing folic acid intake as required by the prescription.

3. What is an expected outcome for Lithium use in patients with bipolar disorder?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased incidence of acute manic episodes. Lithium is commonly used to treat bipolar disorder by helping to stabilize mood and reduce the intensity and frequency of manic episodes. This leads to better overall management of the disorder. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lithium is not known to reduce the risk of myocardial infarction, GI ulcers, or respiratory distress in patients with bipolar disorder.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Diltiazem IV to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is bradycardia. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Bradycardia should be reported immediately because it can result in serious cardiac complications, especially in a client with atrial fibrillation. Hypertension, shortness of breath, and tachycardia are not typically associated with Diltiazem administration and would not be immediate concerns in this scenario.

5. A client is being educated about the use of Fluticasone to treat Perennial Rhinitis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because Fluticasone may show some benefits within a few hours, but its full therapeutic effect may take up to 3 weeks to be achieved in treating Perennial Rhinitis. Option A is incorrect as the frequency of Fluticasone use is usually once daily. Option C is incorrect as Fluticasone is not used for motion sickness. Option D is incorrect as Fluticasone is a preventive medication and not used for immediate relief when nasal passages are blocked.

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