a nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed isosorbide mononitrate for chronic stable angina and develops reflex tachycardi which of the followi
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients who develop tachycardia, such as in the case of reflex tachycardia induced by Isosorbide Mononitrate, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario. Furosemide (Choice A) is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and edema, not for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor primarily used for hypertension and heart failure, not for reflex tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used for chronic angina but does not specifically address reflex tachycardia.

2. When a client has a new prescription for Warfarin, which of the following foods should they avoid based on the nurse's instructions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients prescribed Warfarin should avoid foods high in vitamin K, like broccoli, as they can counteract the medication's effectiveness. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, so consuming high vitamin K foods can interfere with its anticoagulant effects. Bananas, chicken, and potatoes are not high in vitamin K and do not have a significant impact on Warfarin therapy.

3. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. To ensure the insulin is available when food is digested, the client should take this medication 30 minutes before each meal. This timing aligns the medication with the expected postprandial rise in blood glucose levels, optimizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Repaglinide with meals, just before bed, or as soon as waking up does not align with the medication's mechanism of action and timing needed for optimal effectiveness.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing a client's medications. Which of the following actions should the professional take to follow legal practice guidelines? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Maintaining skill competency is a critical aspect of legal practice guidelines for healthcare professionals. It is essential to ensure that healthcare professionals are competent and up-to-date with their skills to provide safe and effective care to patients. While determining the dosage, monitoring for adverse effects, and safeguarding medications are important aspects of medication administration, maintaining skill competency is a fundamental legal responsibility that ensures the delivery of quality care. Determining the dosage and monitoring for adverse effects are clinical responsibilities, while safeguarding medications pertains to proper storage and handling, not specifically related to legal practice guidelines.

5. When teaching the family of a child with Cystic Fibrosis about a new prescription for Acetylcysteine, which information should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Expect this medication to smell like rotten eggs.' Acetylcysteine contains sulfur, which gives it a characteristic rotten-egg odor. This odor is normal and expected when using this medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Acetylcysteine is not used to suppress cough, cause euphoria, or change urine color. Educating the family on the distinct smell of Acetylcysteine will help them understand its characteristics and alleviate concerns about the odor.

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