a nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed isosorbide mononitrate for chronic stable angina and develops reflex tachycardi which of the followi
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients who develop tachycardia, such as in the case of reflex tachycardia induced by Isosorbide Mononitrate, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario. Furosemide (Choice A) is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and edema, not for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor primarily used for hypertension and heart failure, not for reflex tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used for chronic angina but does not specifically address reflex tachycardia.

2. A client has a new prescription for Brimonidine ophthalmic drops and wears soft contact lenses. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is that Brimonidine can absorb into soft contact lenses. To prevent this, the client should remove the contacts, instill the medication, and wait at least 15 minutes before putting the contacts back in to avoid any potential absorption of the medication into the lenses. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Brimonidine is not known to stain contacts, cause pupil constriction, or slow heart rate.

3. A client has a new prescription for Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is a persistent dry cough. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin. It is essential for the client to monitor for this side effect and report it to their healthcare provider promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hyperglycemia, weight gain, and increased urination are not typically associated with Enalapril use.

4. A client in a substance abuse clinic is being assessed by a nurse after discontinuing disulfiram due to severe nausea and vomiting. What is the likely cause of the client's distress?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Disulfiram, when combined with alcohol, leads to a severe reaction causing nausea and vomiting. Since the client experienced these symptoms after starting disulfiram, it is likely that they consumed alcohol while taking the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the symptoms are more indicative of the interaction with alcohol rather than an allergic response. Choice B is incorrect as severe nausea and vomiting are not common side effects of disulfiram alone. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication of an overdose based on the symptoms described.

5. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following adverse effects should the client monitor for and report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Yellow-tinged vision. Yellow-tinged vision is a potential adverse effect of Digoxin and may indicate toxicity. Clients should be instructed to report this symptom promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent complications. Dry cough (choice A) is not typically associated with Digoxin. Pedal edema (choice B) is more commonly seen with heart failure but is not a direct adverse effect of Digoxin. Bruising (choice C) is not a common adverse effect of Digoxin.

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