Nursing Elites

1. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Captopril
• C. Ranolazine
• D. Metoprolol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients who develop tachycardia, such as in the case of reflex tachycardia induced by Isosorbide Mononitrate, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario. Furosemide (Choice A) is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and edema, not for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor primarily used for hypertension and heart failure, not for reflex tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used for chronic angina but does not specifically address reflex tachycardia.

2. Which of the following drugs is associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

• A. Valproic acid
• B. Quinidine
• C. Isoniazid
• D. Ethosuximide

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin reaction that can be associated with Ethosuximide.

3. A client has been prescribed Valsartan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can lead to hyperkalemia by inhibiting the action of aldosterone. Hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's potassium levels to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Incorrect Options Rationale: - Option B, Hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan. - Option C, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Valsartan use. - Option D, Hypercalcemia, is not a known adverse effect of Valsartan; instead, Valsartan can lead to hyperkalemia.

4. When starting a new prescription for prednisone, which instruction should the nurse include for the client?

• A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Do not stop taking this medication abruptly.
• C. Avoid grapefruit juice while taking this medication.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime to prevent drowsiness.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting a new prescription for prednisone is not to stop taking the medication abruptly. Abrupt discontinuation of prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency, emphasizing the importance of gradual tapering under healthcare provider guidance. Increasing potassium-rich foods may be necessary based on individual needs, but it is not the priority instruction in this context. Grapefruit juice interaction is more commonly associated with certain medications but not specifically with prednisone. Taking prednisone at bedtime to prevent drowsiness is not a key instruction related to its administration.

5. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Remove the patch each evening.
• B. Do not cut the patch in half even if angina attacks are under control.
• C. Remove the nitroglycerin patch for 30 minutes if a headache occurs.
• D. Apply a new patch every 48 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove the patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a nitrate-free period of 10 to 12 hours during each 24-hour period, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to the medication. Choice B is incorrect because cutting the patch could alter the dose delivery and is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as removing the patch for 30 minutes when a headache occurs may not be effective in managing symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as Nitroglycerin patches are usually applied once daily, not every 48 hours.

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