Nursing Elites

1. A client is being educated about the use of Fluticasone to treat Perennial Rhinitis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should use the spray every 4 hours while I am awake.
• B. It can take as long as 3 weeks before the medication takes maximum effect.
• C. This medication can also be used to treat motion sickness.
• D. I can use this medication when my nasal passages are blocked.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because Fluticasone may show some benefits within a few hours, but its full therapeutic effect may take up to 3 weeks to be achieved in treating Perennial Rhinitis. Option A is incorrect as the frequency of Fluticasone use is usually once daily. Option C is incorrect as Fluticasone is not used for motion sickness. Option D is incorrect as Fluticasone is a preventive medication and not used for immediate relief when nasal passages are blocked.

2. A client is starting therapy with topotecan. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Hair loss
• B. Fatigue
• C. Sore throat
• D. Red urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report a sore throat because it can indicate an infection due to the immunosuppressive effects of topotecan. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial to prevent complications during therapy. Choices A, B, and D are less critical findings compared to a sore throat. Hair loss is a common side effect of chemotherapy, fatigue is expected with cancer treatment, and red urine is a known harmless effect of topotecan.

3. At what amount does Acetaminophen stop effectively controlling pain?

• A. Over 1,000 mg
• B. 750 mg
• C. Over 1,500 mg
• D. 150 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen is known to lose its effectiveness in controlling pain beyond a dosage of 1,000 mg. Taking more than 1,000 mg will not provide additional pain relief but can increase the risk of adverse effects. Choice B (750 mg) is incorrect because this amount is within the typical recommended dose range for Acetaminophen. Choice C (Over 1,500 mg) is incorrect as it suggests a higher dose than the point at which Acetaminophen starts to lose its effectiveness. Choice D (150 mg) is too low a dose to effectively control pain for most adults.

4. A client is prescribed Lithium. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential toxicity?

• A. Serum sodium
• B. Serum lithium
• C. Serum potassium
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Lithium, monitoring serum lithium levels is crucial to ensure they remain within the therapeutic range and to assess for potential toxicity. Monitoring serum lithium levels helps prevent adverse effects associated with lithium toxicity, such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, and confusion.

5. A client's serum Calcium is 8.8 mg/dL. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

• A. Calcitonin-salmon
• B. Calcium carbonate
• C. Zoledronic acid
• D. Ibandronate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's serum calcium level is below the expected reference range. In this case, the appropriate medication to anticipate administering is Calcium carbonate, an oral form of calcium used to increase serum calcium levels to the expected reference range.

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