Nursing Elites

1. What is the antidote for Warfarin?

• A. Vitamin D
• B. Vitamin C
• C. Vitamin K
• D. Vitamin B6

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vitamin K is the antidote for Warfarin toxicity as it helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, and administering vitamin K can replenish these factors, thereby counteracting the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. Vitamin D, Vitamin C, and Vitamin B6 do not have the specific mechanism to counteract the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin, making them incorrect choices.

2. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Muscle pain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Increased urination

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema due to vasodilation. Clients should monitor for this adverse effect characterized by swelling in the extremities. Muscle pain (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Verapamil. Dry cough (choice B) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors. Increased urination (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of Verapamil. Therefore, the correct answer is monitoring for peripheral edema.

3. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Expect to feel drowsy.
• B. Increase your intake of high-potassium foods.
• C. Take the medication with grapefruit juice.
• D. Avoid foods high in fat.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to expect to feel drowsy. Clonidine is known to cause drowsiness, especially at the beginning of treatment. It is important for clients to be cautious with activities that require alertness until they understand how the medication affects them. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific need to increase high-potassium foods with Clonidine. Choice C is incorrect as grapefruit juice can interact with many medications but is not a typical instruction for Clonidine. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific indication to avoid foods high in fat with Clonidine.

4. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Remove the patch each evening.
• B. Do not cut the patch in half even if angina attacks are under control.
• C. Remove the nitroglycerin patch for 30 minutes if a headache occurs.
• D. Apply a new patch every 48 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove the patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a nitrate-free period of 10 to 12 hours during each 24-hour period, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to the medication. Choice B is incorrect because cutting the patch could alter the dose delivery and is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as removing the patch for 30 minutes when a headache occurs may not be effective in managing symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as Nitroglycerin patches are usually applied once daily, not every 48 hours.

5. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Captopril
• C. Ranolazine
• D. Metoprolol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients experiencing tachycardia, including those with reflex tachycardia induced by medications like Isosorbide Mononitrate. Furosemide (Choice A) is a diuretic and is not indicated for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension and heart failure, not tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used in chronic angina but does not address tachycardia.

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