ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. When taking Digoxin, low levels of what can cause toxicity?
- A. Potassium
- B. Calcium
- C. Sodium
- D. Magnesium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Low potassium levels can lead to Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin competes with potassium for binding sites on the sodium-potassium pump. When potassium levels are low, there is an increased risk of Digoxin binding and toxicity. Choice B (Calcium) is incorrect because low calcium levels are not directly linked to Digoxin toxicity. Choice C (Sodium) is incorrect as low sodium levels do not cause Digoxin toxicity. Choice D (Magnesium) is incorrect as low magnesium levels do not contribute to Digoxin toxicity.
2. A client is prescribed Diltiazem. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its negative chronotropic properties, slowing down the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia by regularly assessing the heart rate to prevent potential complications. Monitoring for tachycardia (choice A) is incorrect as diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia. Hypertension (choice C) is not a typical finding to monitor for with diltiazem use. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is not directly associated with diltiazem administration.
3. A client with prostate cancer is receiving leuprolide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Increased testosterone levels
- B. Increased libido
- C. Gynecomastia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for gynecomastia, as it is an adverse effect of leuprolide due to decreased testosterone levels. Leuprolide works by decreasing testosterone production, which can lead to gynecomastia, the development of male breast tissue. Monitoring for this side effect is essential for early detection and intervention.
4. A caregiver is being instructed by the healthcare provider of an adolescent client who has a new prescription for Albuterol, PO. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?
- A. You can take this medication to relieve an acute asthma attack.'
- B. Tremors are a potential adverse effect of this medication.'
- C. Long-term use of this medication can lead to hyperglycemia.'
- D. This medication can potentially slow the rate of skeletal growth.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tremors are a possible adverse effect of Albuterol due to its stimulation of beta2 receptors in skeletal muscles. It is important for the healthcare provider to educate the caregiver about potential side effects to enhance safety and monitoring of the adolescent client.
5. An adolescent client has a new prescription for Clomipramine for OCD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include to minimize an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Wear sunglasses when outdoors.
- B. Check your temperature daily.
- C. Take this medication in the morning.
- D. Add extra calories to your diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To minimize the adverse effect of photophobia associated with Clomipramine, the client should be advised to wear sunglasses when outdoors. Clomipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) known to cause anticholinergic effects like photophobia, which can be reduced by protecting the eyes with sunglasses when exposed to bright light. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because checking temperature daily, taking the medication in the morning, and adding extra calories to the diet are not specifically related to minimizing the adverse effect of photophobia caused by Clomipramine.
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