ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare provider is caring for four clients who have Peptic Ulcer Disease. The healthcare provider should recognize Misoprostol is contraindicated for which of the following clients?
- A. A client who is pregnant
- B. A client who has osteoarthritis
- C. A client who has a kidney stone
- D. A client who has a urinary tract infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Misoprostol is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential to induce labor. It is used to prevent ulcers in patients taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and is not indicated for osteoarthritis, kidney stones, or urinary tract infections. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Misoprostol should not be used in pregnant individuals as it can cause uterine contractions and potentially harm the fetus. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as Misoprostol is not contraindicated for clients with osteoarthritis, kidney stones, or urinary tract infections.
2. When should a blood sample be obtained for a peak serum level of gentamicin when administered by IV infusion for 1 hour at 0900?
- A. 1000
- B. 1030
- C. 1100
- D. 1130
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should obtain the blood sample for the peak serum level at 1030. This timing allows for 30 minutes to elapse after the completion of the 1-hour IV infusion, which is the recommended window for obtaining the peak serum level of gentamicin.
3. While providing teaching to a client with a new prescription for Enalapril, the nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following manifestations as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Tremors
- B. Dry cough
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Hyperactivity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Dry cough.' Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor known to cause a persistent dry cough as a common adverse effect. This cough should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation, as it may indicate a potential issue with the medication that needs attention to ensure the client's well-being. Tremors (Choice A), drowsiness (Choice C), and hyperactivity (Choice D) are not typically associated with Enalapril use. Therefore, they are incorrect choices for this question.
4. A client has been prescribed a calcium channel blocker for angina. The nurse knows this medication should NOT be used with caution in combination with which drug classes?
- A. NSAIDs
- B. Cardiac glycosides
- C. Beta blockers
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Calcium channel blockers and beta blockers should be used with caution together because they can both suppress heart function, potentially leading to bradycardia, heart block, or heart failure. NSAIDs and cardiac glycosides do not have significant interactions with calcium channel blockers in the same way, so they are not typically a cause for concern when combined.
5. During an assessment, a male client who has recently started taking Haloperidol is displaying certain symptoms. Which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize in reporting to the provider?
- A. Shuffling gait
- B. Neck spasms
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Impotence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Neck spasms are indicative of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that requires urgent intervention. Immediate reporting to the provider is crucial to address this potentially harmful condition and ensure the client's safety. Shuffling gait, drowsiness, and impotence are important to monitor but do not pose the same level of immediate risk as acute dystonia. Acute dystonia can lead to serious complications if not promptly treated, making it the priority in this scenario.
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