Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for four clients who have Peptic Ulcer Disease. The healthcare provider should recognize Misoprostol is contraindicated for which of the following clients?

• A. A client who is pregnant
• B. A client who has osteoarthritis
• C. A client who has a kidney stone
• D. A client who has a urinary tract infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Misoprostol is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential to induce labor. It is used to prevent ulcers in patients taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and is not indicated for osteoarthritis, kidney stones, or urinary tract infections. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Misoprostol should not be used in pregnant individuals as it can cause uterine contractions and potentially harm the fetus. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as Misoprostol is not contraindicated for clients with osteoarthritis, kidney stones, or urinary tract infections.

2. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant and is at her first prenatal visit. Which of the following immunizations may the healthcare professional administer safely to this client?

• A. Varicella vaccine
• B. Rubella vaccine
• C. Inactivated influenza vaccine
• D. Measles vaccine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the inactivated influenza vaccine. During pregnancy, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommend the inactivated influenza vaccine as safe for pregnant individuals. This vaccination is crucial to protect both the pregnant person and their developing baby from influenza-related complications. It is essential to avoid live vaccines, such as varicella (chickenpox), rubella, and measles vaccines during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of harm to the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because live vaccines are generally contraindicated during pregnancy.

3. In the management of nausea due to gastroparesis in a client with Diabetes, which of the following medications may be prescribed?

• A. Lubiprostone
• B. Metoclopramide
• C. Bisacodyl
• D. Loperamide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metoclopramide, as a dopamine antagonist, is commonly prescribed to manage nausea and improve gastric motility in clients with diabetic gastroparesis. By enhancing gastric emptying, it can help alleviate symptoms like bloating and nausea associated with gastroparesis. Choice A, Lubiprostone, is primarily used to treat chronic idiopathic constipation and irritable bowel syndrome with constipation, not nausea due to gastroparesis. Choice C, Bisacodyl, is a stimulant laxative used for the treatment of constipation and bowel preparation before procedures, not for nausea associated with gastroparesis. Choice D, Loperamide, is an antimotility agent used to manage diarrhea, not nausea or gastric motility issues seen in gastroparesis.

4. A client is receiving discharge teaching for Metronidazole prescribed for an infection. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• B. I should take this medication with food.
• C. I should increase my intake of dairy products while taking this medication.
• D. I should avoid taking dairy products while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alcohol should be avoided while taking Metronidazole because it can lead to a disulfiram-like reaction, causing severe nausea and vomiting. It is important for the client to understand this to prevent adverse reactions and ensure the effectiveness of the medication in treating the infection. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Metronidazole with food is recommended to decrease gastrointestinal upset, and there is no specific need to increase or avoid dairy products while taking this medication.

5. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Insomnia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with clonidine use. Clonidine is known to cause xerostomia (dry mouth) due to its effect on reducing salivary flow. Monitoring for dry mouth is important as it can lead to oral health issues and discomfort for the client. Diarrhea, insomnia, and hypertension are not typically associated with clonidine use, making them less likely adverse effects to monitor for in this scenario.

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