a nurse is caring for four clients who have peptic ulcer disease the nurse should recognize misoprostol is contraindicated for which of the following
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare provider is caring for four clients who have Peptic Ulcer Disease. The healthcare provider should recognize Misoprostol is contraindicated for which of the following clients?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Misoprostol is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential to induce labor. It is used to prevent ulcers in patients taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and is not indicated for osteoarthritis, kidney stones, or urinary tract infections. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Misoprostol should not be used in pregnant individuals as it can cause uterine contractions and potentially harm the fetus. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as Misoprostol is not contraindicated for clients with osteoarthritis, kidney stones, or urinary tract infections.

2. A client has a new prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as a contraindication to this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated for clients with asthma. Asthma is a contraindication for Propranolol due to the potential of worsening bronchoconstriction and causing respiratory distress in individuals with this condition. Diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and glaucoma are not contraindications for Propranolol.

3. At what amount does Acetaminophen stop effectively controlling pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen is known to lose its effectiveness in controlling pain beyond a dosage of 1,000 mg. Taking more than 1,000 mg will not provide additional pain relief but can increase the risk of adverse effects. Choice B (750 mg) is incorrect because this amount is within the typical recommended dose range for Acetaminophen. Choice C (Over 1,500 mg) is incorrect as it suggests a higher dose than the point at which Acetaminophen starts to lose its effectiveness. Choice D (150 mg) is too low a dose to effectively control pain for most adults.

4. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function, potentially due to Furosemide therapy. This finding can suggest inadequate renal perfusion and impaired drug clearance, necessitating immediate reporting to prevent further complications like electrolyte imbalances and worsening heart failure. Choice A: Weight loss may be expected in heart failure patients due to fluid retention, but it is not an immediate concern. Choice B: A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is slightly low but not a priority compared to the indication of kidney dysfunction. Choice C: A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is within the normal range, so it does not require immediate reporting.

5. A client has a prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for signs of dehydration. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to fluid loss and electrolyte imbalance, potentially causing dehydration. Signs of dehydration include dry mouth, increased thirst, and decreased urine output. It is important for the client to be vigilant in monitoring and reporting these symptoms to healthcare providers to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking the medication in the morning, increasing potassium-rich foods, or taking the medication with food are not specific instructions related to the potential side effects of Hydrochlorothiazide.

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