Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Hydroxychloroquine to treat Lupus Erythematosus. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Nausea
• B. Hair loss
• C. Eye damage
• D. Drowsiness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Eye damage.' Hydroxychloroquine can cause severe adverse effects on the eyes, such as retinopathy, which can lead to permanent visual impairment. It is essential for clients to be aware of this potential adverse effect and report any changes in vision promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because although nausea, hair loss, and drowsiness can occur with Hydroxychloroquine, they are not as severe or critical as the risk of eye damage.

2. Which of the following is not a side effect of the ACE Inhibitor (Captopril)?

• A. Rash
• B. Angioedema
• C. Cough
• D. Congestion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Congestion is not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors such as Captopril. ACE inhibitors are known to cause a dry, persistent cough due to bradykinin accumulation, rash, and angioedema, but congestion is not typically listed as a side effect.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who takes Desmopressin for Diabetes Insipidus. For which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Hypovolemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Agitation
• D. Headache

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Headache. Headache during desmopressin therapy can indicate water intoxication, which is a potential adverse effect. Desmopressin is a medication used to treat Diabetes Insipidus by reducing excessive urination and thirst. Monitoring for headaches is crucial as it can signal decreased sodium levels due to water retention, leading to water intoxication, which is a serious concern. Hypovolemia, hypercalcemia, and agitation are not typically associated with desmopressin therapy for Diabetes Insipidus.

4. Which of the following is classified as a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

• A. Quinidine
• B. Disopyramide
• C. Aminodarone
• D. Propafenone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Quinidine is classified as a class IA sodium channel blocker. Class IA antiarrhythmics, like quinidine, work by blocking sodium channels and delaying repolarization. Propafenone, mentioned in the original rationale, is actually a class IC antiarrhythmic agent, not a class IA sodium channel blocker.

5. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-salmon for Osteoporosis. Which of the following tests should the client expect before beginning this medication?

• A. Skin test for allergy to the medication
• B. ECG to rule out cardiac dysrhythmias
• C. Mantoux test to rule out exposure to tuberculosis
• D. Liver function tests to assess risk for medication toxicity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before initiating Calcitonin-salmon, a skin test for allergy to the medication may be performed to prevent anaphylactic reactions. Allergic reactions can occur due to sensitivities to the drug, particularly in individuals with fish allergies. Therefore, it is essential for healthcare providers to assess the client's potential allergic response to Calcitonin-salmon through a skin test. The other options are not relevant in this context. An ECG is not typically required before starting Calcitonin-salmon for Osteoporosis, nor is a Mantoux test or liver function tests.

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