ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?
- A. I'll take this medicine with my meals.
- B. I'll take this medicine 30 minutes before I eat.
- C. I'll take this medicine just before I go to bed.
- D. I'll take this medicine as soon as I wake up in the morning.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. It is crucial for the client to take this medication 15-30 minutes before each meal to synchronize the peak insulin availability with mealtime glucose elevation, maximizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medicine with meals may not optimize its action. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medicine before going to bed is not in line with its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect as taking the medicine upon waking up does not coincide with mealtime glucose elevation.
2. Which of the following is not a side effect associated with Prednisone toxicity?
- A. Cataracts
- B. Hypotension
- C. Psychosis
- D. Acne
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prednisone toxicity is not typically associated with hypotension; instead, it can lead to hypertension. Cataracts, psychosis, and acne are known side effects of Prednisone toxicity.
3. A client receives a local anesthetic of Lidocaine during the repair of a skin laceration. For which of the following adverse reactions should the nurse monitor the client?
- A. Seizures
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Fever
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Seizures are a potential adverse reaction to local anesthetics like Lidocaine. Lidocaine can affect the central nervous system and, in some cases, lead to seizure activity. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to monitor the client for any signs of seizures during and after the administration of Lidocaine.
4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Morphine to manage post-operative pain. Which of the following assessments should the healthcare professional perform first?
- A. Urine output
- B. Bowel sounds
- C. Pain level
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The healthcare professional should prioritize assessing the client's respiratory rate because respiratory depression is a life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate allows for early detection of potential complications and timely intervention to prevent harm. Assessing urine output, bowel sounds, and pain level are important but should come after ensuring the client's respiratory status is stable as it is the most critical assessment to prevent serious complications associated with opioid use.
5. When providing teaching to a client starting therapy with trastuzumab, which finding should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Constipation
- C. Tinnitus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyspnea. The nurse should instruct the client to report dyspnea because it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious adverse effect of trastuzumab. Monitoring and early reporting of respiratory symptoms like dyspnea are essential to prevent further complications and ensure timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with trastuzumab therapy and are not priority symptoms that require immediate reporting for this specific medication.
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