a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus and is starting repaglinide which of the following statements by the client
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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. It is crucial for the client to take this medication 15-30 minutes before each meal to synchronize the peak insulin availability with mealtime glucose elevation, maximizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medicine with meals may not optimize its action. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medicine before going to bed is not in line with its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect as taking the medicine upon waking up does not coincide with mealtime glucose elevation.

2. When reviewing a client's health record, a healthcare professional notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should be identified as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia by increasing the excretion of potassium in the urine. This potassium loss can result in lower-than-normal levels of potassium in the body, leading to hypokalemia.

3. Which of the following diuretics inhibits sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while sparing K+ and hydrogen ions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is the correct answer as it is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while promoting the retention of potassium and hydrogen ions. This mechanism of action helps in reducing fluid retention without causing excessive loss of potassium, which is a common side effect of other diuretics. Furosemide (choice B), Hydrochlorothiazide (choice C), and Bumetanide (choice D) are not correct as they are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide and Bumetanide are loop diuretics that inhibit sodium, potassium, and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to potassium loss.

4. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels, can occur as an adverse effect of Ritonavir. Monitoring lipid levels is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect in clients taking this medication for HIV infection.

5. A client has a new prescription for Albuterol and Beclomethasone inhalers for the control of asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed an inhaled beta2-agonist, such as albuterol, and an inhaled glucocorticoid, such as beclomethasone, for asthma control, the beta2-agonist should be administered first. This sequence is important because the beta2-agonist promotes bronchodilation, which enhances the absorption and effectiveness of the glucocorticoid. Instructing the client to administer the albuterol inhaler before using the beclomethasone inhaler ensures optimal therapeutic benefit. Therefore, option B is the correct choice. Option A is incorrect because the timing of albuterol administration may vary based on the prescribed regimen. Option C is incorrect because beclomethasone is a controller medication, not a rescue medication, and should not be used during acute episodes. Option D is incorrect because beclomethasone should be shaken before use to ensure proper dispersion of the medication.

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