a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus and is starting repaglinide which of the following statements by the client
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. It is crucial for the client to take this medication 15-30 minutes before each meal to synchronize the peak insulin availability with mealtime glucose elevation, maximizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medicine with meals may not optimize its action. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medicine before going to bed is not in line with its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect as taking the medicine upon waking up does not coincide with mealtime glucose elevation.

2. A client has a new prescription for Adalimumab for Rheumatoid Arthritis. Based on the route of administration of Adalimumab, which of the following should the nurse plan to monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Adalimumab is administered subcutaneously. Injection-site redness and swelling are common adverse effects. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the subcutaneous site for redness following the injection to assess for any potential issues or reactions.

3. A client has a new prescription for Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take it with food.' Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole can cause gastrointestinal upset, and taking it with food helps reduce the risk of stomach irritation. It should not be taken on an empty stomach. Maintaining good hydration is important to prevent kidney-related side effects, so maintaining a fluid restriction, as in choice B, is not appropriate. Additionally, stopping the medication when manifestations subside, as in choice D, is incorrect as antibiotics should be taken for the full prescribed course to ensure eradication of the infection and to prevent antibiotic resistance.

4. A client with migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which finding in the client's history should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with first-degree heart block due to its negative inotropic and chronotropic effects. The nurse should report this finding to the provider to consider an alternative therapy to prevent potential worsening of cardiac conduction abnormalities. Choices A, B, and C are not directly contraindications to Propranolol therapy for migraine headaches and do not pose immediate risks that would require reporting to the provider.

5. When caring for a school-age child with a new prescription for Atomoxetine, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver damage. Atomoxetine can lead to liver damage as an adverse effect. Symptoms of liver damage include jaundice, upper abdominal tenderness, dark urine, and elevated liver enzymes. Monitoring for these signs is crucial when a child is on this medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Atomoxetine is not known to cause kidney toxicity, seizure activity, or adrenal insufficiency as primary adverse effects.

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