a nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for fentanyl transdermal patch which of the following instructions
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A client has a new prescription for a Fentanyl transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include for a client using a Fentanyl transdermal patch is to avoid exposure to heat sources. Heat can increase the absorption of the medication, potentially causing an overdose. Instructing the client to avoid heat sources is crucial to ensure their safety and the effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because applying the patch to a non-hairy area, changing it every 72 hours, and not cutting the patch are general guidelines for using transdermal patches but do not specifically address the unique risks associated with Fentanyl patches.

2. Which of the following is the antidote for lead poisoning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calcium disodium ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (CaEDTA) is the antidote for lead poisoning. CaEDTA works by chelating lead, forming a complex that is then excreted in the urine. It is used in chelation therapy to treat lead poisoning by reducing lead levels in the body.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of Hydromorphone IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional preparing to administer IV Hydromorphone to a client is to administer the medication over 5 minutes. This slow administration is crucial to reduce the risk of hypotension and respiratory depression. Administering the medication rapidly can lead to adverse effects. Option B, administering Naloxone prior to Hydromorphone, is incorrect because Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, not as a routine pre-medication. Option C, assessing the client's blood pressure before administration, is important but not the immediate action to take to reduce adverse effects of Hydromorphone. Option D, injecting the medication into the client's subcutaneous tissue, is incorrect as Hydromorphone is meant for intravenous administration for rapid onset of action.

4. In caring for a client who received IV Verapamil to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) and presents with a pulse rate of 98/min and blood pressure of 74/44 mm Hg, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following IV medications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing severe hypotension due to Verapamil administration. The appropriate medication to counteract the vasodilation caused by Verapamil and reverse severe hypotension is Calcium gluconate, which should be administered slowly IV. Therefore, the correct choice is Calcium gluconate (Choice A). Sodium bicarbonate (Choice B) is not indicated for hypotension related to Verapamil use. Potassium chloride (Choice C) and Magnesium sulfate (Choice D) are not the appropriate medications to address the hypotension in this situation.

5. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for hemorrhagic cystitis when receiving cyclophosphamide due to its potential to cause bladder irritation and lead to this serious adverse effect. It is essential to assess for symptoms such as hematuria, dysuria, and flank pain. Monitoring for hypertension, hyperglycemia, and ototoxicity is not directly related to the side effects of cyclophosphamide.

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