ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client is prescribed Clopidogrel. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess for potential adverse effects?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Platelet count
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. Blood glucose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's platelet count to assess for potential bleeding complications. Changes in platelet count can indicate the effectiveness of Clopidogrel therapy and help prevent adverse effects related to clotting or bleeding. Monitoring white blood cell count, hemoglobin, or blood glucose levels is not directly related to the action or side effects of Clopidogrel.
2. A client with prostate cancer is receiving leuprolide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Increased testosterone levels
- B. Increased libido
- C. Gynecomastia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for gynecomastia, as it is an adverse effect of leuprolide due to decreased testosterone levels. Leuprolide works by decreasing testosterone production, which can lead to gynecomastia, the development of male breast tissue. Monitoring for this side effect is essential for early detection and intervention.
3. A client in a critical care unit is postoperative following a right pneumonectomy. After extubation from the ventilator, in which of the following positions should the client be placed?
- A. Prone
- B. On the nonoperative side
- C. Sims'
- D. Semi-Fowler's
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After a pneumonectomy, positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position is crucial for optimal ventilation. This position helps improve lung expansion on the remaining side, facilitating better oxygenation and preventing complications like atelectasis. Placing the client prone, on the nonoperative side, or in Sims' position would not provide the same respiratory benefits post-pneumonectomy.
4. In an acute mental health facility, a patient experiencing opioid withdrawal has a new prescription for Clonidine. What action should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. Administer the Clonidine as prescribed.
- B. Provide ice chips to the patient.
- C. Educate the patient on Clonidine's effects.
- D. Obtain baseline vital signs.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain baseline vital signs. This is essential for establishing a baseline assessment, especially for a patient undergoing opioid withdrawal and starting a new medication like Clonidine. Monitoring vital signs is crucial for evaluating the patient's response to treatment and detecting any potential complications early on. Administering the medication, providing ice chips, and educating the patient on Clonidine's effects are important tasks but obtaining baseline vital signs takes precedence to ensure the patient's safety and proper management.
5. A client is withdrawing from alcohol and has a new prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following information should be included in the teaching?
- A. Increases the risk for seizure activity.
- B. Provides a form of aversion therapy.
- C. Decreases cravings.
- D. Results in mild hypertension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreases cravings.' Propranolol is commonly used as an adjunct medication during alcohol withdrawal to help reduce cravings for alcohol. It does not increase the risk for seizure activity, provide aversion therapy, or result in mild hypertension. By decreasing cravings, Propranolol can support the client in managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms and promoting abstinence. Therefore, it is important to educate the client on how Propranolol can help them cope with alcohol cravings effectively.
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