a nurse is preparing to administer diltiazem iv to a client who has atrial fibrillation which of the following findings should the nurse report immedi
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Diltiazem IV to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is bradycardia. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Bradycardia should be reported immediately because it can result in serious cardiac complications, especially in a client with atrial fibrillation. Hypertension, shortness of breath, and tachycardia are not typically associated with Diltiazem administration and would not be immediate concerns in this scenario.

2. When teaching a client who has a new prescription for Ciprofloxacin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Ciprofloxacin is to avoid direct sunlight. Ciprofloxacin can cause photosensitivity, increasing the risk of sunburn. Clients should be advised to avoid direct sunlight and wear protective clothing, including hats and sunglasses when going outdoors to prevent skin damage. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Ciprofloxacin with an antacid can reduce its absorption, so they should not be taken together. Increasing dairy product intake is not necessary or relevant to taking Ciprofloxacin. While Ciprofloxacin can discolor urine, turning it orange, this is not a critical side effect that requires specific instructions for the client.

3. A client is receiving combination chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients receiving chemotherapy due to the increased risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice A), nausea and vomiting (Choice B), and anorexia (Choice D) are common side effects of chemotherapy but do not typically indicate an oncologic emergency requiring immediate intervention.

4. When caring for a client prescribed Digoxin, which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess for potential toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Digoxin, monitoring potassium levels is crucial as hypokalemia can increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can potentiate the effects of Digoxin on the heart, leading to toxicity. Therefore, regular monitoring of potassium levels helps in preventing adverse effects and ensuring the safe use of Digoxin. Sodium, magnesium, and calcium levels are not directly associated with Digoxin toxicity; hence, they are not the primary focus for monitoring in this case.

5. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-salmon for Osteoporosis. Which of the following tests should the client expect before beginning this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before initiating Calcitonin-salmon, a skin test for allergy to the medication may be performed to prevent anaphylactic reactions. Allergic reactions can occur due to sensitivities to the drug, particularly in individuals with fish allergies. Therefore, it is essential for healthcare providers to assess the client's potential allergic response to Calcitonin-salmon through a skin test. The other options are not relevant in this context. An ECG is not typically required before starting Calcitonin-salmon for Osteoporosis, nor is a Mantoux test or liver function tests.

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