Nursing Elites

1. A client in labor is receiving IV Opioid analgesics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Instruct the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours.
• B. Offer oral hygiene every 2 hours.
• C. Anticipate medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery.
• D. Monitor fetal heart rate every 2 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is receiving IV Opioid analgesics during labor, the nurse should offer oral hygiene every 2 hours. Opioid analgesics can cause adverse effects like dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting. Providing oral hygiene care helps alleviate these symptoms and maintains the client's comfort and well-being during labor. Instructing the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours is not appropriate during labor as mobility may be limited. Anticipating medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery is not necessary as the timing of medication administration should be based on the client's needs and the progress of labor. Monitoring fetal heart rate every 2 hours is important during labor, but it is not specifically related to the client receiving IV Opioid analgesics.

2. A client is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of warfarin?

• A. Nausea
• B. Epistaxis
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Dyspepsia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Epistaxis, or nosebleeds, can be an indication of excessive anticoagulation while on warfarin therapy. Warfarin is a blood thinner that helps prevent blood clots. Epistaxis can occur as a result of the blood-thinning effects of warfarin, leading to increased bleeding tendencies, including nosebleeds. Nausea, diarrhea, and dyspepsia are not typically associated with warfarin therapy; therefore, they are not the adverse effects the nurse should identify in a client receiving warfarin.

3. Before administering lithium to a client with bipolar disorder who has been taking the medication for 1 year, the nurse should check to see that which of the following tests has been completed?

• A. Thyroid hormone assay
• B. Liver function tests
• C. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
• D. Brain natriuretic peptide

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the thyroid hormone assay. Long-term lithium use can result in thyroid dysfunction, making it crucial to monitor the client's thyroid function regularly to detect any abnormalities early and prevent potential complications. Liver function tests (choice B) are not specifically associated with lithium therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (choice C) is a nonspecific test for inflammation and not directly related to lithium therapy. Brain natriuretic peptide (choice D) is a test used to diagnose heart failure and is not relevant to monitoring lithium therapy.

4. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about managing the condition. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should eat small, frequent meals that are low in fiber.
• B. I will limit my intake of caffeine-containing beverages.
• C. I should take NSAIDs to relieve my pain.
• D. I will drink milk before bedtime to decrease acid production.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I will limit my intake of caffeine-containing beverages.' Limiting intake of caffeine-containing beverages is important for managing peptic ulcer disease as caffeine can stimulate gastric acid secretion, which may worsen the condition. It is advisable to choose decaffeinated beverages and avoid caffeinated drinks to help reduce the risk of aggravating the ulcer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests eating small, frequent meals low in fiber, which is not ideal for managing peptic ulcer disease. Choice C of taking NSAIDs is contraindicated as NSAIDs can worsen peptic ulcers. Choice D of drinking milk before bedtime to decrease acid production is a common misconception; while milk may temporarily neutralize stomach acid, it can stimulate more acid production later, making the condition worse.

5. A client is taking metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urine output
• B. Decreased fasting blood glucose
• C. Decreased hemoglobin A1C
• D. Decreased polyuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A decrease in hemoglobin A1C is a more specific indicator of metformin's effectiveness in controlling blood glucose levels over a longer period compared to fasting blood glucose levels. Hemoglobin A1C reflects average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months, providing a more comprehensive view of glycemic control. Increased urine output (choice A) is not a direct indicator of metformin's effectiveness and can be influenced by various factors. Decreased fasting blood glucose (choice B) can fluctuate due to various reasons and may not provide a reliable long-term assessment of metformin's efficacy. Decreased polyuria (choice D) refers to a symptom rather than a direct measure of metformin's effectiveness in managing diabetes.

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