ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A client has a new prescription for Clozapine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should have a high-carbohydrate snack between meals and at bedtime.
- B. You are likely to develop hand tremors if you take this medication for a long period of time.
- C. You may experience temporary numbness of your mouth after each dose.
- D. You should have your white blood cell count monitored every week.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clozapine has a risk for fatal agranulocytosis, making weekly monitoring of the client's white blood cell (WBC) count essential to detect any potential issues early. This monitoring helps in managing the risk and ensuring the client's safety while on clozapine.
2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who reports urinary incontinence and asks about a prescription for Oxybutynin. The provider should recognize that Oxybutynin is contraindicated in the presence of which of the following conditions?
- A. Bursitis
- B. Sinusitis
- C. Depression
- D. Glaucoma
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that can increase intraocular pressure. It is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma, as it can worsen the condition. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, and using Oxybutynin can further elevate this pressure, potentially leading to serious complications such as vision impairment or damage to the optic nerve. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as bursitis, sinusitis, and depression are not contraindications for Oxybutynin use. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Glaucoma.
3. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Clopidogrel, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess for potential adverse effects?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Platelet count
- C. Hemoglobin
- D. Blood glucose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by reducing the formation of blood clots. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's platelet count to assess for potential bleeding complications. A decrease in platelet count could indicate a risk of bleeding, which is an adverse effect associated with Clopidogrel therapy. Monitoring other laboratory values like white blood cell count, hemoglobin, and blood glucose is important for assessing overall health status but is not directly related to the potential adverse effects of Clopidogrel.
4. A client has a new prescription for Ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take this medication with milk.
- B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Take this medication before bedtime.
- D. Take this medication with antacids.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take this medication on an empty stomach.' Ferrous sulfate is best absorbed on an empty stomach. Instruct the client to take it 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals to maximize absorption and avoid interactions with food or beverages that may decrease absorption. Choice A is incorrect because taking Ferrous sulfate with milk can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific benefit to taking it before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of Ferrous sulfate.
5. A client is receiving treatment with vincristine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Neurotoxicity
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neurotoxicity. Vincristine is known to cause neurotoxicity as an adverse effect due to its impact on the nervous system. Monitoring for neurotoxicity is crucial to detect any signs early. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia is not a typical finding associated with vincristine. Neutropenia is a common side effect of chemotherapy but is not directly related to vincristine. Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of vincristine.
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