Nursing Elites

1. When administering the drug lithium, what is one important side effect to watch for?

• A. Anaphylaxis
• B. Seizures
• C. Angioedema
• D. Pulmonary Edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering lithium, it is crucial to watch for the side effect of angioedema. Angioedema is a potential adverse reaction associated with lithium therapy, characterized by rapid swelling beneath the skin, often around the eyes and lips. Monitoring for this side effect is essential to promptly address and manage any signs of angioedema that may occur during lithium treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because anaphylaxis, seizures, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated side effects of lithium administration.

2. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. Which finding should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Relief of headache
• B. Relief of nausea
• C. Relief of abdominal pain
• D. Relief of heartburn

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Relief of abdominal pain is a key indicator of omeprazole effectively treating peptic ulcer disease. Omeprazole works by reducing stomach acid production, which helps alleviate abdominal pain associated with peptic ulcers. While relief of other symptoms like headache, nausea, and heartburn may also occur, the primary therapeutic goal of omeprazole in peptic ulcer disease is to reduce abdominal pain caused by gastric irritation. Therefore, the relief of abdominal pain is the most significant finding to indicate the effectiveness of omeprazole in this context. Choices A, B, and D may improve as a result of decreased stomach acid production, but they are not as specific or central to the therapeutic goal of treating peptic ulcer disease as the relief of abdominal pain.

3. A client with angina is seeking a prescription for sildenafil to manage erectile dysfunction. Which of the following medications is contraindicated with Sildenafil?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Isosorbide
• C. Clopidogrel
• D. Atorvastatin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Isosorbide, an organic nitrate used for angina, is contraindicated with sildenafil due to the risk of fatal hypotension. Concurrent use of these medications can lead to severe hypotension. Patients are advised to avoid taking nitrate medications for 24 hours after using isosorbide to prevent this dangerous interaction.

4. A client is receiving treatment with bevacizumab. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bevacizumab is known to potentially cause hypertension as a common adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure regularly to detect and manage any elevations effectively. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bevacizumab is not typically associated with causing hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, or hypocalcemia. Therefore, monitoring for hypertension is the priority in this case.

5. A client is starting therapy with Metformin. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

• A. Take this medication with your first bite of food.
• B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Take this medication before bedtime.
• D. Take this medication every other day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take this medication with your first bite of food.' Metformin should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects and ensure better absorption. By taking the medication with the first bite of food, the client can help minimize potential stomach upset and improve the drug's effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because taking Metformin on an empty stomach can increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to take Metformin before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect because Metformin is typically taken daily, not every other day, as prescribed by the healthcare provider.

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