Nursing Elites

1. When administering the drug lithium, what is one important side effect to watch for?

• A. Anaphylaxis
• B. Seizures
• C. Angioedema
• D. Pulmonary Edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering lithium, it is crucial to watch for the side effect of angioedema. Angioedema is a potential adverse reaction associated with lithium therapy, characterized by rapid swelling beneath the skin, often around the eyes and lips. Monitoring for this side effect is essential to promptly address and manage any signs of angioedema that may occur during lithium treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because anaphylaxis, seizures, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated side effects of lithium administration.

2. A nurse reviewing a client's medical record notes a new prescription for verifying the trough level of the client's medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain a blood specimen immediately prior to administering the next dose of medication.
• B. Verify that the client has been taking the medication for 24 hours before obtaining a blood specimen.
• C. Ask the client to provide a urine specimen after the next dose of medication.
• D. Administer the medication and obtain a blood specimen 30 minutes later.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To verify the trough levels of a medication accurately, the nurse should obtain a blood specimen immediately before administering the next dose of the medication. The trough level represents the lowest concentration of the medication in the bloodstream, typically right before the next dose is due. This timing ensures an accurate assessment of the drug's concentration in the body at its lowest point, aiding in determining the drug's effectiveness and potential toxicity levels. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for 24 hours would not provide the trough level. Choice C is incorrect as urine specimens are not used to measure trough levels. Choice D is incorrect as obtaining a blood specimen 30 minutes after administering the medication would not reflect the trough level.

3. During discharge instructions, a client with a new prescription for Phenytoin should be advised to take which of the following actions?

• A. Brush and floss your teeth regularly.
• B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Increase your intake of calcium-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for Phenytoin is to brush and floss their teeth regularly. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, a condition that affects the gums. By maintaining good oral hygiene practices such as regular brushing and flossing, the client can help minimize the risk of developing this side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding grapefruit juice is more relevant for medications affected by grapefruit juice metabolism, taking medication on an empty stomach is not specifically indicated for Phenytoin, and increasing calcium-rich foods is not directly related to the side effects or administration of Phenytoin.

4. What is the antidote for Heparin?

• A. Atropine
• B. Protamine sulfate
• C. Calcium carbonate
• D. Ferrous sulfate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote used to reverse the effects of Heparin by binding to heparin and neutralizing its anticoagulant properties. It is crucial to administer Protamine sulfate promptly in cases of Heparin overdose or when immediate reversal of Heparin's effects is required to prevent bleeding complications. Atropine is not the antidote for Heparin; it is commonly used for treating bradycardia. Calcium carbonate is used to treat conditions like acid indigestion, heartburn, or calcium deficiency. Ferrous sulfate is a form of iron supplement used to treat or prevent iron deficiency anemia. None of these alternatives are antidotes for Heparin.

5. A healthcare provider is planning to administer IV Alteplase to a client who is demonstrating manifestations of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare provider plan to take?

• A. Administer IM Enoxaparin along with the Alteplase dose.
• B. Hold direct pressure on puncture sites for up to 30 minutes.
• C. Administer Aminocaproic acid IV prior to alteplase infusion.
• D. Prepare to administer Alteplase within 8 hours of manifestation onset.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering IV Alteplase for a massive Pulmonary Embolism, the healthcare provider should plan to hold direct pressure on puncture sites for 10 to 30 minutes or until oozing of blood stops. This is crucial to prevent bleeding complications at the puncture sites. Choice A is incorrect because Enoxaparin is not usually administered along with Alteplase for a Pulmonary Embolism. Choice C is incorrect because Aminocaproic acid is not typically given prior to alteplase infusion in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because Alteplase should be administered within 2 hours of onset of manifestations for Pulmonary Embolism, not within 8 hours.

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