Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is prescribed Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional monitor to assess for potential toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia due to its effects on the heart's electrical conduction system. Monitoring the client's heart rate regularly is essential to detect and manage toxicity promptly. Choice B, Hypertension, is incorrect as Digoxin toxicity typically presents with bradycardia and not hypertension. Choices C and D, Hypoglycemia and Hypercalcemia, are also incorrect as they are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity.

2. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Ototoxicity
• D. Hemorrhagic cystitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for hemorrhagic cystitis when receiving cyclophosphamide due to its potential to cause bladder irritation and lead to this serious adverse effect. It is essential to assess for symptoms such as hematuria, dysuria, and flank pain. Monitoring for hypertension, hyperglycemia, and ototoxicity is not directly related to the side effects of cyclophosphamide.

3. A client has a new prescription for Efavirenz, an NNRTI. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime to prevent drowsiness.
• B. Take this medication with a glass of milk.
• C. Take this medication with a glass of juice.
• D. Take this medication at the same time every day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take Efavirenz at bedtime to prevent drowsiness and manage central nervous system side effects like dizziness and vivid dreams. While it is important to take the medication at the same time daily for consistent blood levels, the emphasis should be on bedtime to minimize the impact of these side effects. Choices B and C suggesting taking the medication with milk or juice are incorrect and not relevant to optimizing Efavirenz therapy.

4. A client has a new prescription for Captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Captopril should be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. The client should be instructed to take it 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals to optimize its effectiveness. Taking it with food can reduce its absorption and efficacy.

5. A client is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take this medication in the morning.
• B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• C. You should take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Limit your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed furosemide is to take the medication in the morning. Furosemide, a diuretic, is best taken in the morning to prevent nocturia, which is excessive urination at night. Taking it earlier in the day can help reduce disruptions to sleep patterns. Therefore, advising the client to take furosemide in the morning is crucial for optimal therapeutic effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding potassium-rich foods, does not need to be taken on an empty stomach, and does not mandate limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

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