a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse ef
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. What finding should a nurse monitor for as an adverse effect when a client has a new prescription for Spironolactone?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to an increase in potassium levels. Hyperkalemia can be dangerous, causing muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels closely is crucial when a client is on Spironolactone. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is incorrect because Spironolactone does not typically affect blood glucose levels. Hypocalcemia (choice C) and hyponatremia (choice D) are also incorrect as Spironolactone's primary impact is on potassium levels.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium loss. Clients should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods to prevent hypokalemia.

3. A client has a new prescription for Nevirapine, an NNRTI. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement that the nurse should include in teaching the client about Nevirapine, an NNRTI, is to take the medication with food to improve gastrointestinal tolerance and prevent nausea. While absorption is not significantly affected by food, taking it with meals can help reduce adverse gastrointestinal effects. Choice A is incorrect because Nevirapine should not be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is generally true for most medications but is not specific to Nevirapine. Choice D is a good practice for medication adherence but is not specific to the administration requirements of Nevirapine.

4. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following side effects should the client monitor for and report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema (swelling of the ankles) as a side effect. This occurs due to the dilation of blood vessels and increased fluid retention. It is important for the client to monitor for ankle swelling as it could indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Reporting this side effect to the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustment of the treatment plan.\n Choice B, increased urination, is not a common side effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, persistent cough, is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors rather than calcium channel blockers like Amlodipine. Choice D, dark-colored urine, is not a typical side effect of Amlodipine and is not something the client should specifically monitor for and report while taking this medication.

5. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. It is crucial for the client to take this medication 15-30 minutes before each meal to synchronize the peak insulin availability with mealtime glucose elevation, maximizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medicine with meals may not optimize its action. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medicine before going to bed is not in line with its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect as taking the medicine upon waking up does not coincide with mealtime glucose elevation.

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