ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client received IV Verapamil to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The client's pulse rate is now 98/min, and blood pressure is 74/44 mm Hg. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following IV medications?
- A. Calcium gluconate
- B. Sodium bicarbonate
- C. Potassium chloride
- D. Magnesium sulfate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, where the client's blood pressure is significantly lowered due to Verapamil administration, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for Calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate is used to reverse severe hypotension caused by Verapamil. It should be given slowly intravenously as it counteracts the vasodilation caused by Verapamil, helping to normalize blood pressure levels. Sodium bicarbonate is not indicated for low blood pressure. Potassium chloride and magnesium sulfate are not the appropriate choices to address hypotension caused by Verapamil.
2. When educating a client with a new prescription for Omeprazole to manage GERD, which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication before meals.
- B. You may need to take this medication for a long time.
- C. Increase your intake of vitamin C while taking this medication.
- D. Expect immediate relief of symptoms.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication before meals. Omeprazole should be taken before meals to ensure its effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production. This timing allows the medication to work on reducing acid secretion when the stomach is most actively producing it, leading to better control of symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because not all patients with GERD need to take Omeprazole for the rest of their lives; the duration of treatment varies. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to increase vitamin C intake while taking Omeprazole. Choice D is incorrect because Omeprazole may take a few days to start providing symptom relief, so immediate relief should not be expected.
3. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine. What instruction should the nurse include during teaching?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Expect to feel drowsy or lightheaded.
- C. Increase your fluid intake.
- D. Avoid foods high in fat.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction when teaching a client about Clonidine is to expect to feel drowsy or lightheaded. Clonidine can cause these side effects, especially when starting the medication. The nurse should advise the client to avoid activities that require alertness until they understand how the medication affects them. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Clonidine with food, increasing fluid intake, or avoiding foods high in fat are not specific instructions related to managing the side effects of Clonidine.
4. Which of the following is classified as a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?
- A. Quinidine
- B. Disopyramide
- C. Aminodarone
- D. Propafenone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Quinidine is classified as a class IA sodium channel blocker. Class IA antiarrhythmics, like quinidine, work by blocking sodium channels and delaying repolarization. Propafenone, mentioned in the original rationale, is actually a class IC antiarrhythmic agent, not a class IA sodium channel blocker.
5. A client has a prescription for Acyclovir. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Expect to take this medication long-term.
- B. Increase fluid intake during therapy.
- C. Avoid sexual contact while on this medication.
- D. Consult your healthcare provider if you experience nausea.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Acyclovir is to increase fluid intake during therapy. Acyclovir can cause nephrotoxicity, potentially leading to kidney damage. Increasing fluid intake helps prevent this adverse effect by promoting adequate renal function and drug elimination. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Acyclovir is usually prescribed for short-term use, there is no need to avoid sexual contact while on the medication, and nausea is not a common side effect that necessitates immediate consultation with a healthcare provider.
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