Nursing Elites

1. A client with Angina Pectoris asks the nurse about the next step if they take one tablet, wait 5 minutes, but still have Anginal pain. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. Take two more sublingual tablets at the same time.
• B. Call emergency services.
• C. Take a sustained-release nitroglycerin capsule.
• D. Wait another 5 minutes then take a second sublingual tablet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: If anginal pain persists after taking the first tablet and waiting 5 minutes, the priority step is to call emergency services (911) and then take a second sublingual tablet. Persistent pain could indicate a myocardial infarction, and immediate medical attention is crucial. Taking two more tablets at the same time (Choice A) can lead to excessive vasodilation and hypotension. Taking a sustained-release nitroglycerin capsule (Choice C) is not appropriate for immediate relief during an acute episode. Waiting another 5 minutes and then taking a second tablet (Choice D) is not advisable in this emergency situation where prompt action is necessary.

2. When teaching a patient to take their own pulse, which medication should the nurse instruct them to monitor? (Hint: if pulse is <60 or >100, the patient should contact their healthcare provider before taking the medication)

• A. Digoxin
• B. Lithium
• C. Montelukast
• D. Phenytoin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is essential for patients taking Digoxin to monitor their pulse regularly. If their pulse falls below 60 or exceeds 100 beats per minute, they should contact their healthcare provider immediately. This is crucial due to Digoxin's potential to affect heart rate, making pulse monitoring a vital aspect of patient care while on this medication.

3. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

• A. Ketamine
• B. Naltrexone
• C. Flumazenil
• D. Fluvoxamine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is a competitive benzodiazepine antagonist that can reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation, administering Flumazenil can help counteract the excessive sedation and other effects of Diazepam, thereby promoting the client's recovery and preventing potential complications. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist, not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as a potential sign of Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Nausea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nausea is a potential sign of Digoxin toxicity. Along with vomiting, visual disturbances, and confusion, it can be an early indication of an overdose. Dry mouth is not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity. Hypoglycemia is a low blood sugar level and is not directly related to Digoxin toxicity. Tinnitus, a ringing in the ears, is not a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Healthcare providers should closely monitor clients on Digoxin for symptoms like nausea to prevent serious complications.

5. During an admission assessment for a client with severe Aspirin toxicity, which finding should the nurse expect?

• A. Body temperature 35°C (95°F)
• B. Lung crackles
• C. Cool, dry skin
• D. Respiratory depression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In severe Aspirin toxicity, respiratory depression is an anticipated finding due to the development of respiratory acidosis. Aspirin toxicity can lead to metabolic acidosis, causing the individual to hyperventilate initially to compensate. However, as the condition progresses, respiratory depression can occur, resulting in impaired gas exchange and respiratory acidosis.

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