Nursing Elites

1. When a client reports urticaria and dyspnea after receiving amoxicillin/clavulanic acid, which medication should be administered first?

• A. Administer epinephrine
• B. Administer albuterol
• C. Administer diphenhydramine
• D. Administer prednisone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing symptoms of a severe allergic reaction. The priority intervention is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine acts quickly to reverse the effects of the allergic reaction and can be life-saving in cases of anaphylaxis. Albuterol is used for bronchodilation and may help with respiratory symptoms but is not the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. Diphenhydramine and prednisone are used for allergic reactions but are not as rapid-acting as epinephrine and should be considered after administering epinephrine in this situation.

2. What is the classification for the drug valproate?

• A. Anti-diabetic
• B. Anti-convulsant
• C. Anti-ulcer agent
• D. Anti-hypertensive

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Valproate is classified as an anticonvulsant. It is commonly used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain. Therefore, the correct classification for valproate is as an anticonvulsant. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because valproate is not used to treat diabetes, ulcers, or hypertension.

3. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Edema
• B. Constipation
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Imatinib is known to cause edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of fluid retention, such as swelling of the extremities or weight gain. Edema can indicate potential complications and requires prompt intervention to prevent further issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with imatinib use. Constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not commonly reported adverse effects of imatinib therapy.

4. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to the same site each day.
• B. Remove the patch at night.
• C. Cover the patch with a heating pad.
• D. Apply the patch to a hairless area of skin.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction is to apply the Nitroglycerin transdermal patch to a hairless area of skin. This ensures proper absorption of the medication. It is important to rotate the application site daily to prevent skin irritation and tolerance development. Applying the patch to the same site each day can lead to decreased efficacy and potential skin reactions. Removing the patch at night is not necessary as the patches are usually worn continuously to provide constant medication delivery. Covering the patch with a heating pad can increase the absorption of the medication and lead to an overdose, which is not recommended.

5. When teaching a client with a new prescription for furosemide, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication in the morning.
• B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for furosemide, a diuretic, is to take it in the morning to prevent nocturia. Taking it in the morning helps to prevent frequent urination during the night, allowing the client to have uninterrupted sleep. This timing also coincides with the body's natural diuretic response, which is typically more active during the day. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding foods high in potassium, taking it on an empty stomach, or limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

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