ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client is starting therapy with doxorubicin. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Hair loss
- B. Fatigue
- C. Sore throat
- D. Red urine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Sore throat.' Doxorubicin is known to have immunosuppressive effects, which can predispose the client to infections. A sore throat can be an early sign of infection, and prompt reporting to the healthcare provider is crucial to initiate appropriate interventions and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hair loss, fatigue, and red urine are common side effects of doxorubicin and are typically expected during therapy. While these side effects should be monitored, they do not require immediate reporting unless they become severe or concerning.
2. A client with thrombophlebitis receiving heparin by continuous IV infusion asks the nurse how long it will take for the heparin to dissolve the clot. Which of the following responses should the nurse give?
- A. It usually takes heparin at least 2 to 3 days to reach a therapeutic blood level.
- B. A pharmacist is the person to answer that question.
- C. Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming.
- D. The oral medication you will take after this IV will dissolve the clot.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is C. Heparin does not dissolve clots; it prevents new clots from forming. Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of new clots and the extension of existing clots, rather than directly dissolving them. The client should be informed that the purpose of heparin therapy is to prevent the clot from getting larger and to reduce the risk of new clots forming. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A talks about reaching a therapeutic blood level of heparin, which is not related to clot dissolution. Choice B deflects the question to a pharmacist without providing relevant information. Choice D inaccurately suggests that an oral medication will dissolve the clot, which is not the mechanism of action for heparin.
3. A client asks the nurse to explain the difference between stable and unstable angina. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. "Stable angina is predictable in its frequency, intensity, and duration. Unstable angina is when angina episodes become more frequent or severe, and occur during periods of rest."?
- B. "Unstable angina is caused by spasms of the coronary arteries. Stable angina is when angina episodes become more frequent or severe, and occur during periods of rest."?
- C. "Unstable angina is predictable in its frequency, intensity, and duration. Stable angina is when angina episodes become more frequent or severe, and occur during periods of rest."?
- D. "Stable angina is caused by spasms of the coronary arteries. Unstable angina is when angina episodes become more frequent or severe, and occur during periods of rest."?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Stable angina is typically triggered by physical exertion or emotional stress and is predictable in its frequency, intensity, and duration. In contrast, unstable angina is characterized by angina episodes that are unexpected, more severe, prolonged, and can occur at rest. Understanding these differences can help healthcare providers assess and manage angina episodes effectively, ensuring appropriate interventions are implemented promptly based on the type of angina present.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's medication history and notes a new prescription for Enalapril. The healthcare professional should monitor the client for which of the following as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia as an adverse effect due to decreased aldosterone levels, which leads to potassium retention. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent potential complications associated with hyperkalemia. The other options, bradycardia, hypoglycemia, and hypocalcemia, are not typically associated with Enalapril use and are less likely to occur as adverse effects.
5. When administering IV Amphotericin B to a client with a systemic fungal infection, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Constipation
- C. Fever
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is fever. Amphotericin B is known to cause adverse effects such as fever, chills, and nausea during infusion. Monitoring for fever is essential as it can indicate an adverse reaction. To manage these effects, pretreatment with diphenhydramine and acetaminophen can be administered.
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