a nurse is teaching a client who is starting therapy with doxorubicin which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client is starting therapy with doxorubicin. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

A. Hair loss
B. Fatigue
C. Sore throat
D. Red urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Sore throat.' Doxorubicin is known to have immunosuppressive effects, which can predispose the client to infections. A sore throat can be an early sign of infection, and prompt reporting to the healthcare provider is crucial to initiate appropriate interventions and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hair loss, fatigue, and red urine are common side effects of doxorubicin and are typically expected during therapy. While these side effects should be monitored, they do not require immediate reporting unless they become severe or concerning.

2. Why has an ACE inhibitor been prescribed following an MI?

A. “This medication will lower your potassium level.”
B. “ACE inhibitors have been found to reduce mortality following MI.”
C. “ACE inhibitors are always prescribed with a beta blocker and calcium channel blocker following an MI.”
D. “This medication will treat your hypotension.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Following a myocardial infarction (MI), ACE inhibitors are commonly prescribed due to their proven benefit in reducing mortality and improving outcomes post-MI. These medications help by decreasing the workload of the heart, preventing remodeling of the heart chambers, and improving survival rates. While ACE inhibitors may have effects on potassium levels, the primary reason for their prescription post-MI is their mortality-reducing properties.

3. A client with migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which finding in the client's history should the nurse report to the provider?

A. The client had a prior myocardial infarction.
B. The client takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
C. The client takes an SSRI for depression.
D. An ECG indicates a first-degree heart block.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with first-degree heart block due to its negative inotropic and chronotropic effects. The nurse should report this finding to the provider to consider an alternative therapy to prevent potential worsening of cardiac conduction abnormalities. Choices A, B, and C are not directly contraindications to Propranolol therapy for migraine headaches and do not pose immediate risks that would require reporting to the provider.

4. A client has a prescription for ceftriaxone. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. You may develop a cough while taking this medication.
B. You should stop taking this medication if you develop a rash.
C. This medication cannot be given orally.
D. This medication may cause your urine to turn yellow.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A rash can indicate an allergic reaction to ceftriaxone, which should be reported to the provider. It is crucial to instruct the client to discontinue the medication and seek medical attention if a rash develops to prevent potential serious adverse effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because cough is not a common side effect of ceftriaxone, ceftriaxone is typically administered parenterally, and a yellow discoloration of urine is a harmless side effect due to the color of the medication itself, respectively.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin 1 g by intermittent IV bolus. Available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 45 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver?

A. 22 gtt/min
B. 24 gtt/min
C. 20 gtt/min
D. 18 gtt/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), you can use the formula: (Volume in mL x Drop factor) / Time in minutes = Flow rate in gtt/min. In this case, it would be (100 mL x 10 gtt/mL) / 45 min = 22 gtt/min. Therefore, the healthcare professional should adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver 22 gtt/min. Choice B, 24 gtt/min, is incorrect as it results from a miscalculation. Choices C and D, 20 gtt/min and 18 gtt/min respectively, are also incorrect calculations based on the given parameters.