ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client is starting therapy with doxorubicin. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Hair loss
- B. Fatigue
- C. Sore throat
- D. Red urine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Sore throat.' Doxorubicin is known to have immunosuppressive effects, which can predispose the client to infections. A sore throat can be an early sign of infection, and prompt reporting to the healthcare provider is crucial to initiate appropriate interventions and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hair loss, fatigue, and red urine are common side effects of doxorubicin and are typically expected during therapy. While these side effects should be monitored, they do not require immediate reporting unless they become severe or concerning.
2. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. Which finding should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?
- A. Relief of headache
- B. Relief of nausea
- C. Relief of abdominal pain
- D. Relief of heartburn
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Relief of abdominal pain is a key indicator of omeprazole effectively treating peptic ulcer disease. Omeprazole works by reducing stomach acid production, which helps alleviate abdominal pain associated with peptic ulcers. While relief of other symptoms like headache, nausea, and heartburn may also occur, the primary therapeutic goal of omeprazole in peptic ulcer disease is to reduce abdominal pain caused by gastric irritation. Therefore, the relief of abdominal pain is the most significant finding to indicate the effectiveness of omeprazole in this context. Choices A, B, and D may improve as a result of decreased stomach acid production, but they are not as specific or central to the therapeutic goal of treating peptic ulcer disease as the relief of abdominal pain.
3. A client's serum Calcium is 8.8 mg/dL. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?
- A. Calcitonin-salmon
- B. Calcium carbonate
- C. Zoledronic acid
- D. Ibandronate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's serum calcium level is below the expected reference range. In this case, the appropriate medication to anticipate administering is Calcium carbonate, an oral form of calcium used to increase serum calcium levels to the expected reference range.
4. A nurse is reviewing the health history of a client who has a prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Previous history of thromboembolism
- B. Concurrent use of an antacid
- C. History of bronchial asthma
- D. Recent weight gain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated for clients with a history of bronchial asthma.
5. A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer this medication?
- A. One
- B. Two
- C. Three
- D. Four
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Phenobarbital, with a long half-life of 4 days, remains at therapeutic levels in the body for an extended period. Due to this prolonged duration of action, the nurse should administer phenobarbital once a day to maintain a consistent therapeutic effect without the need for multiple daily doses. Administering the medication more than once a day would not be necessary and could increase the risk of side effects or toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer phenobarbital once a day.
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