ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client is starting therapy with doxorubicin. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Hair loss
- B. Fatigue
- C. Sore throat
- D. Red urine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Sore throat.' Doxorubicin is known to have immunosuppressive effects, which can predispose the client to infections. A sore throat can be an early sign of infection, and prompt reporting to the healthcare provider is crucial to initiate appropriate interventions and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hair loss, fatigue, and red urine are common side effects of doxorubicin and are typically expected during therapy. While these side effects should be monitored, they do not require immediate reporting unless they become severe or concerning.
2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client taking Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider immediately?
- A. INR of 4.0
- B. Potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
- C. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
- D. BUN of 18 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 4.0 indicates that the client's blood is clotting too slowly, increasing the risk of bleeding. This level is above the therapeutic range for a client on Warfarin therapy. Therefore, the healthcare professional should notify the provider immediately to prevent potential bleeding complications. The other laboratory values are within normal limits and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health while on Warfarin therapy.
3. A drug ending in the suffix (navir) is considered a ______.
- A. Antidepressant
- B. Protease inhibitor
- C. Beta antagonist
- D. H antagonist
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a drug name ends in the suffix -navir, it indicates that the drug is a protease inhibitor. Protease inhibitors are commonly used in antiviral therapy to treat infections by inhibiting viral replication. Therefore, the correct answer is B: Protease inhibitor.
4. A patient is prescribed acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hr PRN for pain. The available acetaminophen liquid is 500 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?
- A. 6.5 mL
- B. 7 mL
- C. 5 mL
- D. 8 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer: (Desired dose / Concentration) = Volume to administer. In this case, (650 mg / 500 mg) x 5 mL = 6.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 6.5 mL of acetaminophen liquid per dose to provide the prescribed 650 mg of acetaminophen. Choice B, 7 mL, is incorrect because the correct calculation results in 6.5 mL. Choice C, 5 mL, is incorrect as it is the concentration of the acetaminophen liquid, not the final volume needed. Choice D, 8 mL, is incorrect because it does not reflect the accurate calculation based on the prescription and concentration.
5. A healthcare professional is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for Enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?
- A. Inject the medication into the muscle.
- B. Massage the injection site after administration.
- C. Rotate injection sites between the arms and thighs.
- D. Administer the medication in the abdomen.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction is to administer Enoxaparin in the abdomen as a subcutaneous injection. This method helps prevent bleeding complications associated with the medication. Massaging the injection site after administration should be avoided to reduce the risk of local irritation or bleeding. While rotating injection sites between the arms and thighs is a good practice for some medications, it is not recommended for Enoxaparin. Consistent administration in the abdomen ensures optimal absorption and helps avoid complications.
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