Nursing Elites

1. What are the Therapeutic Effects of Lithium?

• A. Prevents or decreases the incidence of acute manic episodes
• B. Maintenance of blood glucose
• C. Control of hyperglycemia in diabetic patients
• D. Diminished seizure activity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The therapeutic effect of lithium is that it prevents or decreases the incidence of acute manic episodes in patients with bipolar disorder. Lithium is commonly used as a mood stabilizer in the treatment of bipolar disorder due to its ability to reduce the frequency and severity of manic episodes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lithium is not used for the maintenance of blood glucose, control of hyperglycemia in diabetic patients, or to diminish seizure activity. These effects are not associated with the use of lithium as a medication.

2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for warfarin, which statement should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid using a soft toothbrush.
• B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• C. Report any signs of bleeding to your provider.
• D. Use an electric shaver for shaving.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include when teaching a client with a new prescription for warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding to their provider. Bleeding can indicate excessive anticoagulation, a potential side effect of warfarin therapy that needs prompt medical attention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while oral hygiene measures, dietary considerations, and skin care are important, they are not the priority when teaching a client about warfarin therapy. Monitoring for and reporting signs of bleeding is crucial due to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

3. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Insomnia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with clonidine use. Clonidine is known to cause xerostomia (dry mouth) due to its effect on reducing salivary flow. Monitoring for dry mouth is important as it can lead to oral health issues and discomfort for the client. Diarrhea, insomnia, and hypertension are not typically associated with clonidine use, making them less likely adverse effects to monitor for in this scenario.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Pamidronate to a client who has bone pain related to cancer. Which of the following precautions should the healthcare professional take when administering pamidronate?

• A. Inspect the IV site for redness and irritation when changing the intravenous patch.
• B. Assess the IV site for thrombophlebitis frequently during administration.
• C. Instruct the client to sit upright or stand for 30 min following intravenous administration.
• D. Watch for manifestations of anaphylaxis for 20 min after intramuscular administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pamidronate is administered through intravenous (IV) infusion. As this medication can be irritating to veins, the healthcare professional should carefully assess the IV site for thrombophlebitis during administration to prevent potential complications. Choice A is incorrect as Pamidronate is not administered via intradermal patch. Choice C is incorrect as it does not relate to the administration of Pamidronate. Choice D is incorrect as Pamidronate is not administered intramuscularly.

5. Which medication is a beta blocker?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Verapamil (Calan)
• C. Captopril (Capoten)
• D. Clopidogrel (Plavix)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta blocker commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and angina by blocking the action of adrenaline on the heart. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker, Captopril is an ACE inhibitor, and Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication. Therefore, the correct answer is Atenolol (Tenormin) as it belongs to the beta blocker class of medications.

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