ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. What are the Therapeutic Effects of Lithium?
- A. Prevents or decreases the incidence of acute manic episodes
- B. Maintenance of blood glucose
- C. Control of hyperglycemia in diabetic patients
- D. Diminished seizure activity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The therapeutic effect of lithium is that it prevents or decreases the incidence of acute manic episodes in patients with bipolar disorder. Lithium is commonly used as a mood stabilizer in the treatment of bipolar disorder due to its ability to reduce the frequency and severity of manic episodes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lithium is not used for the maintenance of blood glucose, control of hyperglycemia in diabetic patients, or to diminish seizure activity. These effects are not associated with the use of lithium as a medication.
2. While assessing a client taking Amiodarone to treat Atrial Fibrillation, which of the following findings is indicative of Amiodarone toxicity?
- A. Light yellow urine
- B. Report of tinnitus
- C. Productive cough
- D. Blue-gray skin discoloration
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Productive cough can indicate pulmonary toxicity, which is a known adverse effect of Amiodarone. Clients on Amiodarone should be monitored for signs of pulmonary toxicity such as cough, dyspnea, and chest pain. This is important to detect early and prevent serious complications. The other options are not typically associated with Amiodarone toxicity. Light yellow urine is not a common sign, tinnitus is more related to ear problems, and blue-gray skin discoloration is not a recognized symptom of Amiodarone toxicity.
3. When providing teaching to a client starting therapy with trastuzumab, which finding should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Constipation
- C. Tinnitus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyspnea. The nurse should instruct the client to report dyspnea because it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious adverse effect of trastuzumab. Monitoring and early reporting of respiratory symptoms like dyspnea are essential to prevent further complications and ensure timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with trastuzumab therapy and are not priority symptoms that require immediate reporting for this specific medication.
4. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
- B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hours
- C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a potentially dangerous condition. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause potassium retention, leading to hyperkalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in serious consequences such as cardiac dysrhythmias. The healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider, withhold the medication, and take appropriate actions to prevent complications. Monitoring and managing potassium levels are crucial in clients receiving spironolactone. The other options do not directly relate to the potential adverse effects of spironolactone and are within normal limits, making them less urgent to report.
5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical history of a client who is scheduled for surgery and takes Warfarin daily. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Potassium level
- B. INR
- C. BUN
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most important lab value to monitor in a client taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and the INR reflects the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications.
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