Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer clindamycin 200 mg by intermittent IV bolus. The amount available is clindamycin injection 200 mg in 100 mL 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) to infuse over 30 min. The healthcare professional should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?

• A. 200 mL/hr
• B. 150 mL/hr
• C. 100 mL/hr
• D. 250 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in mL/hr: (Volume in mL / Time in hours) = Flow rate in mL/hr. In this case, (100 mL / 0.5 hr) = 200 mL/hr. The correct calculation is: 100 mL (volume) / 0.5 hr (time) = 200 mL/hr. Therefore, the correct answer is 200 mL/hr. Choice B (150 mL/hr), C (100 mL/hr), and D (250 mL/hr) are incorrect as they do not match the calculated flow rate needed for the administration of clindamycin.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical history of a client who is scheduled for surgery and takes Warfarin daily. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Potassium level
• B. INR
• C. BUN
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most important lab value to monitor in a client taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and the INR reflects the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications.

3. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is a diuretic that commonly causes hyponatremia (low sodium levels) due to its effect on sodium and water excretion. The nurse must closely monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia, such as weakness, confusion, and muscle cramps, and promptly intervene to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Furosemide is not associated with hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypercalcemia. Understanding the medication's mechanism of action helps prioritize monitoring for potential adverse effects.

4. A client receives a new prescription for NRTIs for HIV treatment. Which statement should the nurse include during teaching about these medications?

• A. These medications work by inhibiting enzymes to prevent HIV replication.
• B. These medications work by preventing protein synthesis within the HIV cell.
• C. These medications work by weakening the cell wall of the HIV virus.
• D. These medications work by blocking HIV entry into cells.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: NRTIs inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, essential for HIV replication. By preventing this process, viral replication is hindered, ultimately reducing the viral load in the body. Option A correctly explains the mechanism of action of NRTIs in treating HIV infection. Choices B, C, and D describe mechanisms of action that do not align with how NRTIs work in HIV treatment. B is incorrect because NRTIs do not target protein synthesis within the HIV cell. C is incorrect as NRTIs do not affect the cell wall of the HIV virus. D is incorrect because NRTIs do not block HIV entry into cells.

5. A client is starting therapy with cisplatin. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Tinnitus
• B. Nausea
• C. Constipation
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tinnitus should be reported by the client as it can be indicative of ototoxicity, an adverse effect associated with cisplatin therapy. Ototoxicity can result in damage to the inner ear structures, leading to hearing problems. Therefore, prompt reporting of tinnitus is essential for early intervention and prevention of potential complications. Nausea, constipation, and weight gain are common side effects of cisplatin but are not typically indicative of serious complications requiring immediate reporting compared to tinnitus.

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