Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer clindamycin 200 mg by intermittent IV bolus. The amount available is clindamycin injection 200 mg in 100 mL 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) to infuse over 30 min. The healthcare professional should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?

• A. 200 mL/hr
• B. 150 mL/hr
• C. 100 mL/hr
• D. 250 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in mL/hr: (Volume in mL / Time in hours) = Flow rate in mL/hr. In this case, (100 mL / 0.5 hr) = 200 mL/hr. The correct calculation is: 100 mL (volume) / 0.5 hr (time) = 200 mL/hr. Therefore, the correct answer is 200 mL/hr. Choice B (150 mL/hr), C (100 mL/hr), and D (250 mL/hr) are incorrect as they do not match the calculated flow rate needed for the administration of clindamycin.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for four clients who have Peptic Ulcer Disease. The healthcare professional should recognize Misoprostol is contraindicated for which of the following clients?

• A. A client who is pregnant
• B. A client who has osteoarthritis
• C. A client who has a kidney stone
• D. A client who has a urinary tract infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Misoprostol is contraindicated in pregnancy as it can induce labor and potentially lead to harm to the fetus. Therefore, it should not be used in pregnant clients due to its uterotonic effects. For clients with osteoarthritis, kidney stone, or urinary tract infection, Misoprostol is not contraindicated specifically for these conditions.

3. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Insomnia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with Clonidine use. Clonidine is known to cause a reduction in saliva production, leading to dry mouth. Monitoring for this adverse effect is essential to ensure client comfort and compliance with the medication. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Insomnia is more commonly associated with opioid withdrawal rather than Clonidine use. While Clonidine is used to treat hypertension, it is not typically an adverse effect of the medication.

4. A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a ______.

• A. H
• B. ACE inhibitor
• C. Antifungal
• D. Beta agonist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Drugs with names ending in -pril are classified as angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. These medications are commonly used to manage conditions like high blood pressure, heart failure, and diabetic kidney disease by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure.

5. A client with tobacco use disorder is being educated about Nicotine replacement therapy. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid eating right before chewing a piece of nicotine gum.
• B. I will need to stop using the nicotine gum after 1 year.
• C. I know that nicotine gum is a safe alternative to smoking during pregnancy.
• D. I must chew the nicotine gum quickly for about 15 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. To maximize the effectiveness of nicotine gum, the client should avoid eating or drinking 15 minutes before and while using it. This helps ensure proper absorption of nicotine through the oral mucosa. Choice B is incorrect because the duration of nicotine gum use can vary depending on the individual's needs and progress. Choice C is incorrect as nicotine gum should be used during pregnancy only under healthcare provider guidance. Choice D is incorrect because nicotine gum should be chewed slowly until a tingling sensation is felt, then parked between the cheek and gum until the tingling stops.

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