ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
- B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs
- C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to potassium retention. The nurse should notify the provider and withhold the medication to prevent further elevation of potassium levels, which can result in serious cardiac complications. The other findings (Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L, Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs, and Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg) are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy.
2. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Cinchonism?
- A. Valproic acid
- B. Quinidine
- C. Isoniazid
- D. Ethosuximide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cinchonism is associated with Quinidine, not Valproic acid, Isoniazid, or Ethosuximide. Cinchonism is characterized by symptoms such as tinnitus, dizziness, and headaches. Quinidine, being an antiarrhythmic agent, can lead to this condition as a side effect.
3. A client is starting therapy with Metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with your first bite of food.
- B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Take this medication before bedtime.
- D. Take this medication every other day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Metformin should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects and ensure better absorption. Instructing the client to take the medication with the first bite of food helps in achieving optimal effectiveness and minimizes the risk of side effects like nausea or upset stomach. Choice B is incorrect because taking Metformin on an empty stomach can lead to increased gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific timing requirement for taking Metformin before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as Metformin is usually taken daily, not every other day.
4. A client is receiving combination chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?
- A. Dry oral mucous membranes
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
- D. Anorexia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients receiving chemotherapy due to the increased risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice A), nausea and vomiting (Choice B), and anorexia (Choice D) are common side effects of chemotherapy but do not typically indicate an oncologic emergency requiring immediate intervention.
5. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?
- A. Mexiletine
- B. Amiodarone
- C. Quinidine
- D. Procainamide
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Procainamide is a class IA antiarrhythmic drug that acts as a sodium channel blocker by blocking fast sodium channels. Mexiletine is a class IB antiarrhythmic drug, not class IA. Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic, and Quinidine is a class IA antiarrhythmic but not a sodium channel blocker.
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