Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
• B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs
• C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to potassium retention. The nurse should notify the provider and withhold the medication to prevent further elevation of potassium levels, which can result in serious cardiac complications. The other findings (Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L, Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs, and Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg) are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy.

2. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Bradycardia.' Atenolol, a beta-blocker, commonly causes bradycardia as an adverse effect. It works by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to a decreased heart rate known as bradycardia. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia is essential to prevent any potential complications while on atenolol. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because atenolol is not known to cause tachycardia, hypoglycemia, or hypertension as common adverse effects.

3. A client has a new prescription for Allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Increase your fluid intake.
• C. Avoid foods high in calcium.
• D. Take this medication with meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Allopurinol can cause kidney stones due to the formation of uric acid crystals, so it is crucial for the client to increase their fluid intake. Adequate hydration helps to prevent the formation of kidney stones by diluting the urine and promoting the excretion of uric acid. Therefore, advising the client to increase their fluid intake is essential in preventing this adverse effect while taking Allopurinol.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Urinary retention
• B. Tachypnea
• C. Hypertension
• D. Irritating cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the sensation of a full bladder, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for this complication is crucial to prevent bladder distention and related issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and irritating cough are not typically associated with opioid agonist administration for pain management.

5. A client informs a healthcare professional about taking Gingko Biloba. Which of the following medications is contraindicated for a client using Gingko Biloba?

• A. Acetaminophen
• B. Warfarin
• C. Digoxin
• D. Lisinopril

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Warfarin is contraindicated for a client taking Gingko Biloba due to the potential interaction that can lead to suppressed coagulation and an increased risk of bleeding or hemorrhage. Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and when combined with Gingko Biloba, which also has anticoagulant properties, the risk of bleeding complications is significantly heightened. Acetaminophen (Choice A), Digoxin (Choice C), and Lisinopril (Choice D) do not have significant interactions with Gingko Biloba compared to Warfarin. Acetaminophen is a pain reliever, Digoxin is a medication for heart conditions, and Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor for hypertension.

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