ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. What is the pharmacological action of metformin?
- A. Blocks stimulation of beta1 and beta2.
- B. Blocks vasoconstriction and aldosterone.
- C. Acts at many levels in the CNS to produce an anxiolytic effect.
- D. Decreases hepatic glucose production.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases hepatic glucose production. Metformin's primary pharmacological action is to decrease hepatic glucose production, leading to lower blood sugar levels and improved insulin sensitivity in the liver. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because metformin does not block stimulation of beta1 and beta2 receptors, vasoconstriction, aldosterone, or act in the CNS to produce an anxiolytic effect. Therefore, these options are not reflective of metformin's mechanism of action.
2. What is the therapeutic class of Valproate?
- A. Anticoagulant
- B. Antianxiety, benzodiazepines
- C. Anticonvulsant, vascular headache suppressant
- D. Mood stabilizer
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Valproate belongs to the therapeutic class of anticonvulsants. It is primarily used to manage seizures but is also effective in treating vascular headaches. Therefore, it is not classified as an anticoagulant, antianxiety medication, or mood stabilizer. Option A, anticoagulant, is incorrect as valproate does not have anticoagulant properties. Option B, antianxiety benzodiazepines, is incorrect as valproate is not primarily used to treat anxiety disorders with benzodiazepines. Option D, mood stabilizer, is incorrect as valproate is not classified as a mood stabilizer, although it can be used in some cases for mood disorders, its primary therapeutic class is anticonvulsant.
3. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?
- A. Intestinal ileus
- B. Neutropenia
- C. Delirium
- D. Hyperthermia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV nitroprusside is administered at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, resulting in mental status changes such as delirium. Monitoring thiocyanate levels during therapy is crucial to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL to prevent this adverse reaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because nitroprusside does not typically cause intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia as adverse reactions.
4. A nurse orienting a newly licensed nurse is reviewing the procedure for taking a telephone prescription. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the newly licensed nurse understands the process?
- A. A second nurse enters the prescription into the client's medical record.
- B. Another nurse should listen to the phone call.
- C. The provider can clarify the prescription when he signs the health record.
- D. I should omit the 'read back' if this is a one-time prescription.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Another nurse should listen to the phone call.' When taking a telephone prescription, having another nurse listen to the phone call is essential to prevent errors in communication. This process helps ensure accuracy and reduces the risk of misinterpretation. Choice A is incorrect because entering the prescription into the client's medical record is not related to verifying the accuracy of the telephone prescription. Choice C is incorrect as the provider clarifying the prescription upon signing the health record doesn't address the immediate need for verification during the phone call. Choice D is incorrect because the 'read back' is a crucial step in confirming the accuracy of all prescriptions, regardless of whether they are one-time or recurring.
5. A client is reviewing a new prescription for Terbutaline with a history of preterm labor. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. I can increase my activity now that I've started on this medication.
- B. I will increase my daily fluid intake to 3 quarts.
- C. I will report increasing intensity of contractions to my doctor.
- D. I am glad this will prevent preterm labor.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client should report increasing intensity, frequency, or duration of contractions to the provider as these are signs of preterm labor. Monitoring contractions is crucial for the management of preterm labor and the safety of both the client and the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing activity, fluid intake, or assuming the medication will prevent preterm labor do not address the essential need to report changes in contractions, which are a vital sign of potential complications in preterm labor.
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