ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Test Bank
1. A client has a new prescription for Metoclopramide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Expect a rapid heart rate.
- B. Take the medication with meals.
- C. Report any signs of restlessness or involuntary movements.
- D. Avoid consuming dairy products.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction to include when teaching a client about Metoclopramide is to report any signs of restlessness or involuntary movements. Metoclopramide can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness or involuntary movements. It is essential for clients to notify their healthcare provider if they experience these symptoms to receive appropriate management.
2. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Cinchonism?
- A. Valproic acid
- B. Quinidine
- C. Isoniazid
- D. Ethosuximide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cinchonism is associated with Quinidine, not Valproic acid, Isoniazid, or Ethosuximide. Cinchonism is characterized by symptoms such as tinnitus, dizziness, and headaches. Quinidine, being an antiarrhythmic agent, can lead to this condition as a side effect.
3. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Insomnia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with clonidine use. Clonidine is known to cause xerostomia (dry mouth) due to its effect on reducing salivary flow. Monitoring for dry mouth is important as it can lead to oral health issues and discomfort for the client. Diarrhea, insomnia, and hypertension are not typically associated with clonidine use, making them less likely adverse effects to monitor for in this scenario.
4. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?
- A. Captopril
- B. Lisinopril
- C. Furosemide
- D. Spironolactone
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.
5. Which of the following conditions are not treated with Barbiturates?
- A. Seizures
- B. Hypotension
- C. Insomnia
- D. Anxiety
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hypotension is not treated with barbiturates. Barbiturates are primarily used for treating seizures, insomnia, and anxiety, but they are not indicated for the treatment of hypotension.
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