a nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg po daily the amount available is furosemide oral solution 10 mg1 ml how many ml should the nurse a
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ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, (80 mg / 10 mg/mL) = 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B (10 mL), C (6 mL), and D (12 mL) are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the volume needed based on the provided concentration of the solution.

2. What is the classification of Ondansetron?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ondansetron is classified as an antiemetic. It is commonly used to prevent nausea and vomiting, especially in patients undergoing chemotherapy or surgery. Choice A, Antihypertensive, is incorrect as Ondansetron is not used to treat high blood pressure. Choice B, Antiarrhythmic, is incorrect as Ondansetron is not used to manage heart rhythm abnormalities. Choice D, Antiulcer agent, is incorrect as Ondansetron is not primarily indicated for treating ulcers.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer Belimumab to a client with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider plan to take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: Monitoring the client for hypersensitivity reactions is crucial when administering Belimumab due to its known potential for severe infusion reactions and anaphylaxis. The healthcare provider should closely observe the client during the administration to promptly identify and manage any hypersensitivity reactions that may occur. Choice A is incorrect because warming Belimumab is not necessary before administration. Choice B is incorrect as Belimumab should not be administered as an IV bolus over 5 minutes; it should be given as an IV infusion over a longer duration. Choice C is incorrect as Belimumab should not be diluted in a 5% dextrose and water solution.

4. A client has a new prescription for Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to cough. Monitoring for a persistent dry cough is crucial as it may indicate the need for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with Enalapril use and are less likely to be monitored as adverse effects.

5. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. Which finding should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Relief of abdominal pain is a key indicator of omeprazole effectively treating peptic ulcer disease. Omeprazole works by reducing stomach acid production, which helps alleviate abdominal pain associated with peptic ulcers. While relief of other symptoms like headache, nausea, and heartburn may also occur, the primary therapeutic goal of omeprazole in peptic ulcer disease is to reduce abdominal pain caused by gastric irritation. Therefore, the relief of abdominal pain is the most significant finding to indicate the effectiveness of omeprazole in this context. Choices A, B, and D may improve as a result of decreased stomach acid production, but they are not as specific or central to the therapeutic goal of treating peptic ulcer disease as the relief of abdominal pain.

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