ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?
- A. 8 mL
- B. 10 mL
- C. 6 mL
- D. 12 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, (80 mg / 10 mg/mL) = 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B (10 mL), C (6 mL), and D (12 mL) are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the volume needed based on the provided concentration of the solution.
2. When administering Phenytoin, what should you monitor?
- A. Behavior
- B. Therapeutic blood levels
- C. For signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When administering Phenytoin, monitoring the patient's behavior is important to assess for any changes that may indicate adverse effects. Monitoring therapeutic blood levels helps ensure the medication is within the effective range and not causing toxicity. Additionally, being vigilant for signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a severe skin reaction associated with Phenytoin use, is crucial for early detection and intervention. Therefore, monitoring behavior, therapeutic blood levels, and for signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome are all essential when administering Phenytoin.
3. What is the expected pharmacological action of propranolol?
- A. Block stimulation of beta1 receptors
- B. Alter water and electrolyte transport in the large intestine
- C. Block stimulation of beta2 receptors
- D. Both A and C are correct
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Propranolol exerts its pharmacological action by blocking stimulation of both beta1 and beta2 receptors. By doing so, it leads to decreased heart rate and blood pressure. Therefore, both options A and C are correct as propranolol affects both types of beta receptors. Choice B is incorrect as propranolol does not alter water and electrolyte transport in the large intestine.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client taking Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider immediately?
- A. INR of 4.0
- B. Potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
- C. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
- D. BUN of 18 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 4.0 indicates that the client's blood is clotting too slowly, increasing the risk of bleeding. This level is above the therapeutic range for a client on Warfarin therapy. Therefore, the healthcare professional should notify the provider immediately to prevent potential bleeding complications. The other laboratory values are within normal limits and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health while on Warfarin therapy.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect. The client should monitor their pulse regularly and report any significant decreases.
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