Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic Neutropenia is receiving Filgrastim. What action should the nurse take to assess for an adverse effect of filgrastim?

• A. Assess for bone pain.
• B. Assess for right lower quadrant pain.
• C. Auscultate for crackles in the bases of the lungs.
• D. Auscultate the chest to listen for a heart murmur.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bone pain is a known adverse effect of Filgrastim, which is dose-related. By assessing for bone pain, the nurse can monitor for this common side effect. Acetaminophen and, if necessary, an opioid analgesic can be used to manage the bone pain associated with Filgrastim. Assessing for right lower quadrant pain, crackles in the bases of the lungs, or heart murmurs would not directly relate to the adverse effects of Filgrastim in a client with chronic Neutropenia.

2. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to the same site each day.
• B. Remove the patch at night.
• C. Cover the patch with a heating pad.
• D. Apply the patch to a hairless area of skin.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction is to apply the Nitroglycerin transdermal patch to a hairless area of skin. This ensures proper absorption of the medication. It is important to rotate the application site daily to prevent skin irritation and tolerance development. Applying the patch to the same site each day can lead to decreased efficacy and potential skin reactions. Removing the patch at night is not necessary as the patches are usually worn continuously to provide constant medication delivery. Covering the patch with a heating pad can increase the absorption of the medication and lead to an overdose, which is not recommended.

3. A client has a new prescription for Ranitidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with an antacid.
• B. Avoid drinking coffee while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication at bedtime.
• D. Stop the medication if you develop a headache.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Ranitidine is to take the medication at bedtime. Ranitidine is best taken at night to reduce nighttime stomach acid production, providing optimal relief for conditions like gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and ulcers.

4. A client is admitted for a surgical procedure. Which of the following preexisting conditions can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an intravenous anesthetic?

• A. Peptic ulcer disease
• B. Breast cancer
• C. Diabetes mellitus
• D. Schizophrenia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ketamine is known to produce psychological effects, such as hallucinations. Therefore, individuals with schizophrenia are at increased risk of experiencing exacerbation of their symptoms if given Ketamine, making it a contraindication for its use as an intravenous anesthetic. Peptic ulcer disease, breast cancer, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for Ketamine use as an intravenous anesthetic.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of a client who has a prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. Previous history of thromboembolism
• B. Concurrent use of an antacid
• C. History of bronchial asthma
• D. Recent weight gain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated for clients with a history of bronchial asthma. Reporting a history of bronchial asthma to the provider is crucial as it would prompt a review of the medication prescription to avoid potential adverse effects and consider alternative treatment options.

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