Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic Neutropenia is receiving Filgrastim. What action should the nurse take to assess for an adverse effect of filgrastim?

• A. Assess for bone pain.
• B. Assess for right lower quadrant pain.
• C. Auscultate for crackles in the bases of the lungs.
• D. Auscultate the chest to listen for a heart murmur.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bone pain is a known adverse effect of Filgrastim, which is dose-related. By assessing for bone pain, the nurse can monitor for this common side effect. Acetaminophen and, if necessary, an opioid analgesic can be used to manage the bone pain associated with Filgrastim. Assessing for right lower quadrant pain, crackles in the bases of the lungs, or heart murmurs would not directly relate to the adverse effects of Filgrastim in a client with chronic Neutropenia.

2. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Contact provider if heart rate is less than 60/min.
• B. Check pulse rate for 30 seconds and multiply the result by 2.
• C. Increase intake of sodium.
• D. Take with food if nausea occurs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Digoxin for heart failure is to contact the provider if the heart rate is less than 60/min. Digoxin can affect heart rate, and a heart rate below 60/min may indicate toxicity, requiring prompt medical attention. Checking the pulse rate accurately and seeking medical advice are essential components of safe medication management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is related to checking the pulse rate but does not address the critical action of contacting the provider if it is below 60/min. Increasing intake of sodium (Choice C) is inappropriate as high sodium levels can worsen heart failure. Taking Digoxin with food if nausea occurs (Choice D) does not address a critical aspect of Digoxin administration related to heart rate monitoring.

3. A client has been prescribed Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• B. Take this medication with food to prevent nausea.
• C. Monitor your heart rate daily before taking the medication.
• D. Limit your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching for a client prescribed Warfarin is to 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Foods high in vitamin K can decrease the effectiveness of Warfarin by interfering with its anticoagulant effects, potentially leading to blood clotting issues. It is crucial for clients on Warfarin therapy to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-containing foods to ensure the stability of the medication's effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Warfarin with food, monitoring heart rate daily, or limiting fluid intake are not directly related to optimizing the effectiveness of Warfarin therapy.

4. A client has a new prescription for Valproic Acid. The client should be informed that which of the following laboratory tests need to be completed periodically? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Thrombocyte count.
• B. Hematocrit.
• C. Amylase.
• D. Liver function tests.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Valproic acid can lead to thrombocytopenia, making it essential to monitor the client's thrombocyte count periodically. Additionally, valproic acid can cause pancreatitis, necessitating the monitoring of amylase levels. Furthermore, valproic acid carries a risk of hepatotoxicity, requiring regular monitoring of liver function tests.

5. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. PT
• B. aPTT
• C. INR
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The corrected answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory value used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. The aPTT should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. Monitoring aPTT helps healthcare providers adjust heparin doses to achieve the desired anticoagulant effects and prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choice A, PT (prothrombin time), is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C, INR (international normalized ratio), is also used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, platelet count, is important for assessing the risk of bleeding, but it does not directly monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

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