a nurse is assessing a client who has chronic neutropenia and who has been receiving filgrastim which of the following actions should the nurse take t

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ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A client with chronic Neutropenia is receiving Filgrastim. What action should the nurse take to assess for an adverse effect of filgrastim?

A. Assess for bone pain.
B. Assess for right lower quadrant pain.
C. Auscultate for crackles in the bases of the lungs.
D. Auscultate the chest to listen for a heart murmur.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bone pain is a known adverse effect of Filgrastim, which is dose-related. By assessing for bone pain, the nurse can monitor for this common side effect. Acetaminophen and, if necessary, an opioid analgesic can be used to manage the bone pain associated with Filgrastim. Assessing for right lower quadrant pain, crackles in the bases of the lungs, or heart murmurs would not directly relate to the adverse effects of Filgrastim in a client with chronic Neutropenia.

2. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Cinchonism?

A. Valproic acid
B. Quinidine
C. Isoniazid
D. Ethosuximide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cinchonism is associated with Quinidine, not Valproic acid, Isoniazid, or Ethosuximide. Cinchonism is characterized by symptoms such as tinnitus, dizziness, and headaches. Quinidine, being an antiarrhythmic agent, can lead to this condition as a side effect.

3. A client has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A. Take furosemide in the morning.
B. Eat a diet high in potassium.
C. Avoid foods high in magnesium.
D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to eat a diet high in potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Consuming foods rich in potassium can help maintain normal potassium levels in the body and counteract the potential side effect of furosemide. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking furosemide in the morning does not specifically relate to its effectiveness or side effects, avoiding foods high in magnesium is not a primary concern when taking furosemide, and limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not a general recommendation for individuals taking furosemide.

4. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. What finding should the nurse monitor for?

A. Hypertension
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Ototoxicity
D. Hemorrhagic cystitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is receiving cyclophosphamide, the nurse should monitor for hemorrhagic cystitis, a severe adverse effect caused by bladder irritation. It is essential to watch for signs such as hematuria, dysuria, and urinary frequency, and promptly intervene to prevent further complications. Hypertension (Choice A) is not typically associated with cyclophosphamide use. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is not a common side effect of cyclophosphamide. Ototoxicity (Choice C) is more commonly associated with medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics or high-dose aspirin.

5. When administering Phenytoin, what should you monitor?

A. Behavior
B. Therapeutic blood levels
C. For signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome
D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering Phenytoin, monitoring the patient's behavior is important to assess for any changes that may indicate adverse effects. Monitoring therapeutic blood levels helps ensure the medication is within the effective range and not causing toxicity. Additionally, being vigilant for signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a severe skin reaction associated with Phenytoin use, is crucial for early detection and intervention. Therefore, monitoring behavior, therapeutic blood levels, and for signs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome are all essential when administering Phenytoin.