ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Morphine to manage post-operative pain. Which of the following assessments should the healthcare professional perform first?
- A. Urine output
- B. Bowel sounds
- C. Pain level
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The healthcare professional should prioritize assessing the client's respiratory rate because respiratory depression is a life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate allows for early detection of potential complications and timely intervention to prevent harm. Assessing urine output, bowel sounds, and pain level are important but should come after ensuring the client's respiratory status is stable as it is the most critical assessment to prevent serious complications associated with opioid use.
2. When using Nitroglycerine (transdermal), how many hours should you be nitrate-free each day?
- A. 1-2 hours
- B. 5-10 hours
- C. 3-4 hours
- D. 10-12 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When using Nitroglycerine (transdermal), it should be applied for 10-12 hours per day to ensure its effectiveness. A nitrate-free period within the day is essential to prevent the development of tolerance to the medication.
3. A client is taking Epoetin Alfa for anemia. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Platelet count
- C. Hematocrit
- D. Serum potassium level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the hematocrit level to evaluate the effectiveness of Epoetin Alfa therapy since it stimulates red blood cell production. Hematocrit reflects the volume of red blood cells in the blood, providing a direct measure of the therapy's impact on increasing red blood cell mass and addressing anemia. Monitoring white blood cell count and platelet count is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of Epoetin Alfa therapy for anemia. Serum potassium level monitoring may be necessary due to potential side effects of the medication, but it is not the primary indicator of therapy effectiveness in treating anemia.
4. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which statement by the client indicates an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. I can walk a mile a day.
- B. I've had a backache for several days.
- C. I am urinating more frequently.
- D. I feel nauseated and have no appetite.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nausea and loss of appetite are common early signs of digoxin toxicity, indicating an adverse effect of the medication. These symptoms should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and management.
5. A client receiving chemotherapy with Methotrexate asks why Leucovorin is being given. Which of the following responses should the nurse use?
- A. Leucovorin reduces the risk of a transfusion reaction from Methotrexate.
- B. Leucovorin increases platelet production and prevents bleeding.
- C. Leucovorin potentiates the cytotoxic effects of Methotrexate.
- D. Leucovorin protects healthy cells from Methotrexate's toxic effects.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Leucovorin, a folic acid derivative and an antagonist to Methotrexate, is given within 12 hours of high doses of Methotrexate to protect healthy cells from the toxic effects of Methotrexate. It helps to reduce the bone marrow suppression and gastrointestinal side effects caused by Methotrexate, supporting the client's overall well-being during chemotherapy treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Leucovorin does not reduce the risk of a transfusion reaction from Methotrexate, increase platelet production, prevent bleeding, or potentiate the cytotoxic effects of Methotrexate. Instead, Leucovorin works by rescuing healthy cells from the toxic effects of Methotrexate.
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