Nursing Elites

1. A client with a UTI and a history of recurrent infections asks why the provider has not yet prescribed an antibiotic. The nurse should explain that the provider has to wait for the results of which of the following laboratory tests to identify which antibiotic to prescribe?

• A. Gram stain
• B. Culture
• C. Sensitivity
• D. Specific gravity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the case of a UTI, a sensitivity test is crucial as it identifies the most effective antibiotic to target the specific microorganism causing the infection. This test helps in prescribing the appropriate antibiotic for successful treatment and preventing antibiotic resistance. While a Gram stain and culture are important in diagnosing a UTI, the sensitivity test specifically determines the most suitable antibiotic. Specific gravity, on the other hand, is not related to identifying the appropriate antibiotic for a UTI.

2. A client has a new prescription for Hydralazine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydralazine is a vasodilator that can cause reflex tachycardia as an adverse effect. The client should monitor their pulse and report any significant increases, as tachycardia can indicate a severe adverse reaction to the medication. Choice B, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Hydralazine. Choice C, Hyponatremia, and Choice D, Constipation, are also not typically associated with Hydralazine use. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Tachycardia.

3. A client has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take furosemide in the morning.
• B. Eat a diet high in potassium.
• C. Avoid foods high in magnesium.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to eat a diet high in potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Consuming foods rich in potassium can help maintain normal potassium levels in the body and counteract the potential side effect of furosemide. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking furosemide in the morning does not specifically relate to its effectiveness or side effects, avoiding foods high in magnesium is not a primary concern when taking furosemide, and limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not a general recommendation for individuals taking furosemide.

4. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed sucralfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take sucralfate with meals.
• B. Take sucralfate 1 hr before meals.
• C. Take sucralfate with antacids.
• D. Take sucralfate 2 hours after meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking sucralfate is 1 hour before meals. This timing allows sucralfate to effectively coat the stomach lining and provide a protective barrier against gastric acid, helping to prevent ulcers.

5. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Edema
• B. Constipation
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Imatinib is known to cause edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of fluid retention, such as swelling of the extremities or weight gain. Edema can indicate potential complications and requires prompt intervention to prevent further issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with imatinib use. Constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not commonly reported adverse effects of imatinib therapy.

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