a nurse is collecting data from a client who is taking gemfibrozil which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as an adverse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. When assessing a client taking Gemfibrozil, which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse reaction to the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Jaundice is an adverse reaction that can occur in clients taking Gemfibrozil due to the potential development of liver impairment. Other symptoms of liver impairment may include anorexia and upper abdominal discomfort. Monitoring for signs of jaundice is crucial to detect and manage adverse effects of the medication promptly. Mental status changes (choice A) are not commonly associated with Gemfibrozil use. Tremor (choice B) is not a typical adverse reaction of Gemfibrozil. Pneumonia (choice D) is not directly linked to Gemfibrozil use but can be a complication in some cases.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Belimumab for a client with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action the healthcare professional should plan to take when administering Belimumab is to monitor the client for hypersensitivity reactions. Belimumab is known to cause severe infusion reactions, including anaphylaxis in some cases. Monitoring for hypersensitivity reactions is crucial to detect and manage any adverse reactions promptly. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because warming the medication, administering by slow IV infusion, and dilution are not specific actions needed for Belimumab administration. The priority is to monitor the client for potential hypersensitivity reactions to ensure their safety.

3. A client has been prescribed an anticoagulant for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed an anticoagulant for atrial fibrillation is to avoid activities that may cause injury. Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding, so it is important to prevent situations that could lead to injury or trauma. Choice A is incorrect because anticoagulants are not typically affected by food intake. Choice C is not necessary for all anticoagulant medications, and heart rate monitoring is more relevant for other conditions. Choice D is not directly related to the action of anticoagulants and is not a priority instruction for this medication.

4. A client has a new prescription for Timolol. How should the nurse instruct the client to insert eye drops?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering eye drops, it is essential to instruct the client to drop the prescribed amount of medication into the center of the conjunctival sac. This technique helps ensure proper distribution of the medication and reduces the risk of potential adverse effects. Pressing on the inside corner of the eye is done to prevent systemic absorption, applying drops directly to the cornea can cause irritation, and wiping the eyes after application can lead to decreased effectiveness of the medication.

5. A client who received Prochlorperazine 4 hours ago reports spasms of his face. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's symptoms of face spasms after receiving Prochlorperazine indicate acute dystonia, a known side effect. Diphenhydramine is commonly administered to manage extrapyramidal symptoms, such as muscle spasms, caused by medications like Prochlorperazine. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for Diphenhydramine to alleviate the client's symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Fomepizole is used in methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning, Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used in opioid overdose, and Phytonadione is vitamin K, used to reverse the effects of certain blood thinners.

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