ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test
1. A client receives a new prescription for NRTIs for HIV treatment. Which statement should the nurse include during teaching about these medications?
- A. These medications work by inhibiting enzymes to prevent HIV replication.
- B. These medications work by preventing protein synthesis within the HIV cell.
- C. These medications work by weakening the cell wall of the HIV virus.
- D. These medications work by blocking HIV entry into cells.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: NRTIs inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, essential for HIV replication. By preventing this process, viral replication is hindered, ultimately reducing the viral load in the body. Option A correctly explains the mechanism of action of NRTIs in treating HIV infection. Choices B, C, and D describe mechanisms of action that do not align with how NRTIs work in HIV treatment. B is incorrect because NRTIs do not target protein synthesis within the HIV cell. C is incorrect as NRTIs do not affect the cell wall of the HIV virus. D is incorrect because NRTIs do not block HIV entry into cells.
2. A client with a new prescription for Escitalopram for the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is being taught by a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. I will follow a low-sodium diet while taking this medication.
- C. I need to discontinue this medication slowly.
- D. I should not crush this medication before swallowing.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When discontinuing escitalopram, the client should taper the medication slowly according to a prescribed tapered dosing schedule to reduce the risk of withdrawal syndrome. This gradual reduction helps minimize potential withdrawal symptoms and ensures a safer discontinuation process. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking escitalopram on an empty stomach, following a low-sodium diet, and not crushing the medication are not directly related to the safe and effective use of the medication or its discontinuation process.
3. Which of the following is classified as a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?
- A. Quinidine
- B. Disopyramide
- C. Aminodarone
- D. Propafenone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Quinidine is classified as a class IA sodium channel blocker. Class IA antiarrhythmics, like quinidine, work by blocking sodium channels and delaying repolarization. Propafenone, mentioned in the original rationale, is actually a class IC antiarrhythmic agent, not a class IA sodium channel blocker.
4. A client is taking oral Oxycodone and Ibuprofen in recommended doses. The nurse should identify that an interaction between these two medications will cause which of the following findings?
- A. A decrease in serum levels of ibuprofen, possibly leading to a need for increased doses of this medication.
- B. A decrease in serum levels of oxycodone, possibly leading to a need for increased doses of this medication.
- C. An increase in the expected therapeutic effect of both medications.
- D. An increase in expected adverse effects for both medications.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When Oxycodone, a narcotic analgesic, and Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), are taken together, they work synergistically to enhance the pain-relieving effects of both medications. These drugs act through different mechanisms, leading to a combined analgesic effect that is more effective than when used alone. Therefore, the interaction between Oxycodone and Ibuprofen results in an increase in the expected therapeutic effect of both medications.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is receiving transdermal Fentanyl for severe pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect to cause an adverse effect when administered concurrently with Fentanyl?
- A. Ampicillin
- B. Diazepam
- C. Furosemide
- D. Prednisone
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Diazepam, a CNS depressant, can interact with Fentanyl causing severe sedation when administered concurrently. This is due to the additive central nervous system depressant effects of both medications, which can lead to excessive sedation, respiratory depression, and other serious adverse effects. Therefore, healthcare professionals need to monitor clients closely for signs of excessive sedation or respiratory depression when administering these medications together.
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