a nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for timolol eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma which of the following instructions should the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

1. A client has a prescription for Timolol eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to apply gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct for 30 to 60 seconds after application. This technique helps prevent systemic absorption of the medication, reducing the risk of systemic side effects. By applying pressure, the drainage of the medication into the bloodstream through the nasolacrimal duct is minimized, enhancing the drug's local ocular effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blinking immediately after instilling the drops, keeping eyes closed for 5 minutes, and administering the drops directly onto the cornea are not recommended practices for administering Timolol eye drops.

2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Clopidogrel, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess for potential adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by reducing the formation of blood clots. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's platelet count to assess for potential bleeding complications. A decrease in platelet count could indicate a risk of bleeding, which is an adverse effect associated with Clopidogrel therapy. Monitoring other laboratory values like white blood cell count, hemoglobin, and blood glucose is important for assessing overall health status but is not directly related to the potential adverse effects of Clopidogrel.

3. A healthcare professional is administering a Dopamine infusion at a low dose to a client with severe heart failure. Which of the following findings is an expected effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dopamine, when administered at a low dose, is expected to increase myocardial contractility by stimulating beta1 receptors. This positive inotropic effect leads to an increase in cardiac output. Therefore, the correct answer is increased myocardial contractility, as it is a desired effect of administering dopamine to a client with severe heart failure.

4. A healthcare professional is educating clients in an outpatient facility about the use of Insulin to treat type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. For which of the following types of insulin should the professional inform the clients to expect a peak effect 1 to 5 hr after administration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Regular insulin typically exhibits a peak effect approximately 1 to 5 hours after administration. It is important for clients to be aware of this timing to ensure optimal management of their blood glucose levels. Insulin glargine, NPH insulin, and Insulin lispro have different onset and peak times compared to Regular insulin. Insulin glargine has a slow, steady release with no pronounced peak, NPH insulin peaks around 4 to 12 hours after administration, and Insulin lispro has a rapid onset and a peak effect around 0.5 to 2.5 hours after administration. Therefore, Regular insulin is the correct choice for a peak effect within the specified time frame.

5. Which drug is the antidote for Alprazolam?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is the specific antidote used to reverse the effects of Alprazolam. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine, and Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that works by competitively inhibiting the actions of benzodiazepines at the receptor site, effectively reversing their sedative and other effects. Physostigmine is not used as an antidote for benzodiazepine overdose and can have significant side effects. Protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not benzodiazepines like Alprazolam. Acetylcysteine is used as an antidote for acetaminophen overdose, not benzodiazepines like Alprazolam.

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