Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a group of clients. The nurse should contact the provider about a potential contraindication to a medication for which of the following clients? (Select all that apply.)

• A. A client at 8 weeks of gestation who asks for an Influenza immunization
• B. A client who takes Prednisone and has a possible Fungal infection
• C. A client who has chronic liver disease and is taking Hydrocodone
• D. A client who has Peptic Ulcer Disease, takes Sucralfate, and tells the nurse she has started taking OTC Aluminum Hydroxide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prednisone, a glucocorticoid, should not be taken by a client who has a possible systemic fungal infection as it can worsen the infection. This combination can suppress the immune response, allowing the fungal infection to proliferate. Therefore, the nurse should contact the provider regarding this potential contraindication to medication. The other options do not present a contraindication related to the medication interactions described in the question.

2. A patient on a medical-surgical unit administers a hypnotic medication to an older adult client at 2100. The next morning, the client is drowsy and wants to sleep instead of eating breakfast. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a possible reason for the client's drowsiness?

• A. Reduced cardiac function
• B. First-pass effect
• C. Reduced hepatic function
• D. Increased gastric motility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In older adults, reduced hepatic function can lead to prolonged effects of medications metabolized by the liver. This prolonged effect may result in drowsiness the next morning. Adjusting the dosage of the hypnotic medication may be necessary for this client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Reduced cardiac function (Choice A) is not typically associated with drowsiness due to medication effects. The first-pass effect (Choice B) relates to the initial metabolism of a drug in the liver before reaching systemic circulation, which is not directly linked to drowsiness the next morning. Increased gastric motility (Choice D) does not commonly cause drowsiness as described in the scenario.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who is asking about conjugated equine estrogens. The provider should inform the client this medication is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?

• A. Atrophic vaginitis
• B. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
• C. Osteoporosis
• D. Thrombophlebitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Conjugated equine estrogens are contraindicated in clients with a history of thrombophlebitis due to the increased risk of thrombotic events associated with estrogen use. Thrombophlebitis is characterized by inflammation of a vein with the formation of a clot, and estrogen can further exacerbate this condition, leading to serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for conjugated equine estrogens. Atrophic vaginitis and osteoporosis are conditions where estrogen therapy may actually be indicated. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding is another condition where estrogen therapy can be used to help regulate menstrual bleeding.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is taking Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bruising
• B. Report of metallic taste
• C. Muscle pain
• D. Report of anorexia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct manifestation of digoxin toxicity is the report of anorexia. Anorexia, blurred vision, stomach pain, and diarrhea are common signs of digoxin toxicity. Bruising, metallic taste, and muscle pain are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Patients should promptly report symptoms of toxicity to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

5. A client is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of warfarin?

• A. Nausea
• B. Epistaxis
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Dyspepsia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Epistaxis, or nosebleeds, can be an indication of excessive anticoagulation while on warfarin therapy. Warfarin is a blood thinner that helps prevent blood clots. Epistaxis can occur as a result of the blood-thinning effects of warfarin, leading to increased bleeding tendencies, including nosebleeds. Nausea, diarrhea, and dyspepsia are not typically associated with warfarin therapy; therefore, they are not the adverse effects the nurse should identify in a client receiving warfarin.

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