ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test
1. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a group of clients. The nurse should contact the provider about a potential contraindication to a medication for which of the following clients? (Select all that apply.)
- A. A client at 8 weeks of gestation who asks for an Influenza immunization
- B. A client who takes Prednisone and has a possible Fungal infection
- C. A client who has chronic liver disease and is taking Hydrocodone
- D. A client who has Peptic Ulcer Disease, takes Sucralfate, and tells the nurse she has started taking OTC Aluminum Hydroxide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prednisone, a glucocorticoid, should not be taken by a client who has a possible systemic fungal infection as it can worsen the infection. This combination can suppress the immune response, allowing the fungal infection to proliferate. Therefore, the nurse should contact the provider regarding this potential contraindication to medication. The other options do not present a contraindication related to the medication interactions described in the question.
2. A client has a new prescription for a combination of oral NRTIs (abacavir, lamivudine, and zidovudine) for the treatment of HIV. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?
- A. These medications work by blocking HIV entry into cells.
- B. These medications work by weakening the cell wall of the HIV virus.
- C. These medications work by inhibiting enzymes to prevent HIV replication.
- D. These medications work by preventing protein synthesis within the HIV cell.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The NRTI antiretroviral medications this client is prescribed work by inhibiting the enzyme reverse transcriptase, thus preventing HIV replication. By inhibiting this crucial enzyme, the drug interferes with the virus's ability to replicate and spread in the body. Choice A is incorrect because NRTIs do not block HIV entry into cells. Choice B is incorrect as NRTIs do not weaken the cell wall of the virus. Choice D is incorrect as NRTIs do not prevent protein synthesis within the HIV cell.
3. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- C. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
- D. Expect a dry cough.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include during discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, leading to increased drug levels in the blood. This can result in potentiated side effects and potential toxicity. Option A is incorrect as amlodipine is usually taken once daily, not specifically at bedtime. Option C is incorrect because high-sodium foods are generally discouraged in individuals with hypertension. Option D is incorrect as a dry cough is not an expected side effect of amlodipine.
4. A client is receiving treatment with irinotecan. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Hypertension
- C. Ototoxicity
- D. Neutropenia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Irinotecan is known to commonly cause diarrhea as an adverse effect due to its impact on the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of diarrhea while receiving this treatment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because irinotecan is not typically associated with hypertension, ototoxicity, or neutropenia as primary adverse effects. While these side effects can occur with other medications, they are not the main concerns when monitoring a client receiving irinotecan.
5. During a unit of whole blood transfusion, a client develops a cough, shortness of breath, elevated blood pressure, and distended neck veins. The healthcare professional should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Epinephrine
- B. Lorazepam
- C. Furosemide
- D. Diphenhydramine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is exhibiting signs of fluid overload, which can occur during blood transfusion. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is commonly prescribed in such situations to help relieve manifestations of circulatory overload by promoting diuresis and reducing fluid volume. Therefore, the correct choice is C - Furosemide. Epinephrine (Choice A) is not indicated for fluid overload but for severe allergic reactions. Lorazepam (Choice B) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety or sedation, not for fluid overload. Diphenhydramine (Choice D) is an antihistamine often used for allergic reactions, not for fluid overload.
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