Nursing Elites

1. A client has a prescription for ceftriaxone. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You may develop a cough while taking this medication.
• B. You should stop taking this medication if you develop a rash.
• C. This medication can be given orally.
• D. This medication may cause your urine to turn yellow.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to discontinue ceftriaxone if a rash develops, as it could indicate an allergic reaction that needs to be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because cough development, oral administration, and yellow urine are not typically associated with ceftriaxone use and are not critical information that the nurse needs to emphasize in this scenario.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 8 mL
• B. 10 mL
• C. 6 mL
• D. 12 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, (80 mg / 10 mg/mL) = 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B (10 mL), C (6 mL), and D (12 mL) are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the volume needed based on the provided concentration of the solution.

3. What is the antidote for copper toxicity?

• A. Glucagon
• B. Aminocaproic acid
• C. Atropine
• D. Penicillamine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Penicillamine is the specific chelating agent used for copper toxicity. It forms stable complexes with copper, which are then excreted in the urine. Glucagon is used for treating hypoglycemia, aminocaproic acid is used to treat bleeding disorders, and atropine is used as an antidote for certain types of poisoning, such as organophosphate toxicity.

4. A client has a new prescription for Labetalol. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Avoid sudden discontinuation of the medication.
• C. Increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid sudden discontinuation of Labetalol. Abrupt discontinuation of beta-blockers like Labetalol can lead to rebound hypertension and other cardiac issues. It is important for clients to taper off the medication under healthcare provider guidance to prevent potential complications.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with hypertension who asks about a prescription for propranolol. The nurse should inform the client that this medication is contraindicated in clients with a history of which of the following conditions?

• A. Asthma
• B. Glaucoma
• C. Depression
• D. Migraines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with a history of asthma because it can cause bronchospasms due to its non-selective beta-blocking properties. By blocking beta-2 receptors in the lungs, propranolol can lead to bronchoconstriction, potentially triggering asthma symptoms and exacerbating respiratory issues. Asthma patients should avoid medications like propranolol that can worsen their condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as propranolol is not contraindicated in clients with glaucoma, depression, or migraines. In fact, propranolol is sometimes used in the treatment of migraines and certain types of glaucoma.

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