a nurse is caring for a client who is taking ritonavir a protease inhibitor to treat hiv infection the nurse should monitor for which of the following
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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperlipidemia. Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment, can lead to hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels. Monitoring lipid levels is crucial to identify and manage this potential adverse effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Ritonavir is not known to cause an increased TSH level, decreased ALT level, or hypoglycemia as adverse effects.

2. A client has a new prescription for clonidine to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting clonidine therapy for hypertension is to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known. Clonidine can cause drowsiness, so engaging in activities like driving that require alertness should be avoided until the individual understands how the medication affects them. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific side effect of drowsiness associated with clonidine that could impair driving abilities. Discontinuing the medication if a rash develops, expecting increased salivation, or stopping the medication for dry mouth are not primary concerns related to clonidine therapy for hypertension.

3. When teaching a client who has a prescription for Lisinopril, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for a persistent cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause a persistent dry cough as a side effect. It is essential for the client to report this symptom to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A is incorrect because Lisinopril is typically taken in the morning. Choice C is incorrect as Lisinopril is not known to cause increased appetite. Choice D is also incorrect as Lisinopril can lead to increased potassium levels in the blood, so avoiding foods high in potassium is not necessary.

4. Which of the following drugs is associated with extreme photosensitivity as a reaction?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tetracycline is known to cause extreme photosensitivity reactions, making individuals more sensitive to sunlight and increasing the risk of severe sunburn. It is essential for patients taking tetracycline to protect themselves from excessive sun exposure to prevent adverse reactions.

5. A client is prescribed Metformin. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential adverse effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum creatinine. Metformin can potentially cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with impaired renal function. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is crucial to assess kidney function and detect any adverse effects of Metformin on renal health. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as blood glucose, creatine kinase, and hemoglobin A1c levels are not directly monitored to assess for potential adverse effects of Metformin. Blood glucose monitoring is typically done to assess the efficacy of antidiabetic medications like Metformin, while creatine kinase levels are indicative of muscle damage and hemoglobin A1c reflects long-term blood sugar control.

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