Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Increased TSH level
• B. Decreased ALT level
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyperlipidemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperlipidemia. Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment, can lead to hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels. Monitoring lipid levels is crucial to identify and manage this potential adverse effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Ritonavir is not known to cause an increased TSH level, decreased ALT level, or hypoglycemia as adverse effects.

2. What symptoms should a patient taking Omeprazole report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Black, tarry stools
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Abdominal pain
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Patients taking Omeprazole should report black, tarry stools, diarrhea, or abdominal pain to the healthcare provider because these symptoms could indicate serious side effects associated with the medication. Black, tarry stools may suggest gastrointestinal bleeding, diarrhea can be a sign of a gastrointestinal infection or adverse drug reaction, and abdominal pain may indicate underlying issues that need attention. Choosing 'All of the above' is the correct answer as all these symptoms are important to report for proper evaluation and management.

3. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Furosemide, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• C. Change positions slowly.
• D. Take this medication with meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for Furosemide is to change positions slowly. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these potential adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking Furosemide at bedtime (Choice A) is not necessary as it can be taken at any time of the day. Avoiding foods high in potassium (Choice B) is more relevant for clients taking potassium-sparing diuretics. Taking Furosemide with meals (Choice D) may lead to increased diuretic effects and frequent urination.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer dextrose 5% in water (D5W) 750 mL IV to infuse over 6 hr. How many mL/hr should the IV pump be set to deliver?

• A. 125 mL/hr
• B. 100 mL/hr
• C. 150 mL/hr
• D. 200 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate, divide the total volume by the total time: 750 mL / 6 hr = 125 mL/hr. Therefore, the IV pump should be set to deliver 125 mL/hr to infuse D5W 750 mL over 6 hours. Choice B (100 mL/hr) is incorrect because it does not accurately divide the total volume by the total time. Choice C (150 mL/hr) and Choice D (200 mL/hr) are incorrect as they are not the correct flow rates needed to infuse the D5W solution over the specified time period.

5. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect?

• A. Visual disturbances
• B. Dry cough
• C. Confusion
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Visual disturbances, such as blurred or yellow vision, can be an early sign of digoxin toxicity. Monitoring for visual changes is crucial to detect and prevent potential adverse effects of digoxin. Dry cough, confusion, and urinary retention are not commonly associated adverse effects of digoxin and are not typically monitored in relation to this medication.

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