Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Increased TSH level
• B. Decreased ALT level
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyperlipidemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperlipidemia. Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment, can lead to hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels. Monitoring lipid levels is crucial to identify and manage this potential adverse effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Ritonavir is not known to cause an increased TSH level, decreased ALT level, or hypoglycemia as adverse effects.

2. When educating a client prescribed Rifampin, which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Expect orange discoloration of urine.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Increase your intake of dairy products.
• D. Discontinue the medication if you experience itching.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Rifampin is to expect orange discoloration of urine. Rifampin is known to cause harmless discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, which is a common side effect of this medication. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this expected side effect to prevent unnecessary concern or discontinuation of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Rifampin does not require specific dietary considerations like taking it with food or increasing dairy intake. Furthermore, itching is not a common side effect that would necessitate immediate discontinuation of Rifampin.

3. Which of the following medications is a bronchodilator?

• A. Albuterol
• B. Omeprazole
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Senna

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Albuterol is classified as a bronchodilator, which is commonly used to treat conditions like asthma by relaxing the muscles in the airways and increasing airflow to the lungs. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used to reduce stomach acid production, while ondansetron is an anti-nausea medication, and senna is a laxative.

4. A client has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Avoid taking aspirin while on this medication.
• C. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• D. Take this medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Clopidogrel, an antiplatelet medication, the nurse should instruct them to avoid taking aspirin or other NSAIDs. This is because both medications can increase the risk of bleeding when taken together, potentially leading to serious health complications. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to follow this instruction to ensure their safety and well-being while on Clopidogrel. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Clopidogrel with food, avoiding foods high in potassium, or taking the medication at bedtime are not specific instructions related to the safe use of Clopidogrel and do not address the potential interaction with aspirin, which is essential for the client's well-being.

5. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a potential sign of Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Nausea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nausea is a potential sign of Digoxin toxicity. Other signs of Digoxin toxicity include vomiting, visual disturbances, and confusion. Nausea can be an early indicator of toxicity and should be closely monitored by the nurse. Dry mouth and hypoglycemia are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity. Tinnitus is more commonly associated with medications like aspirin or loop diuretics, not Digoxin.

Similar Questions