ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who reports urinary incontinence and asks about a prescription for Oxybutynin. The healthcare provider should recognize that Oxybutynin is contraindicated in the presence of which of the following conditions?
- A. Bursitis
- B. Sinusitis
- C. Depression
- D. Glaucoma
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that can increase intraocular pressure. It is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma due to the potential to worsen the condition by further elevating intraocular pressure, leading to harm. Choosing option D, Glaucoma, as the correct answer is crucial for the client's safety and to prevent exacerbation of their eye condition. Options A, B, and C are not contraindications for Oxybutynin use and are unrelated to the pharmacological effects of this medication.
2. A client with angina is seeking a prescription for sildenafil to manage erectile dysfunction. Which of the following medications is contraindicated with Sildenafil?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Isosorbide
- C. Clopidogrel
- D. Atorvastatin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Isosorbide, an organic nitrate used for angina, is contraindicated with sildenafil due to the risk of fatal hypotension. Concurrent use of these medications can lead to severe hypotension. Patients are advised to avoid taking nitrate medications for 24 hours after using isosorbide to prevent this dangerous interaction.
3. A client is taking Propylthiouracil. For which of the following adverse effects of this medication should the nurse monitor?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Insomnia
- C. Heat intolerance
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Propylthiouracil is a medication used to treat hyperthyroidism. One of the adverse effects of Propylthiouracil is bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Since the medication works by decreasing thyroid hormone production, it can lead to hypothyroidism as a side effect, causing bradycardia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of bradycardia while taking Propylthiouracil. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because insomnia, heat intolerance, and weight loss are not typically associated adverse effects of Propylthiouracil.
4. What is the correct medical term used to describe impaired blood flow in the coronary arteries?
- A. Myocardial infarction
- B. Angina pectoris
- C. Cerebrovascular accident
- D. Coronary heart disease
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct medical term for impaired blood flow in the coronary arteries is Coronary heart disease. This condition is characterized by a narrowing or blockage of the coronary arteries, leading to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. Myocardial infarction (choice A) refers to a heart attack, which occurs when blood flow to a part of the heart is blocked. Angina pectoris (choice B) is chest pain or discomfort that occurs when the heart muscle doesn't receive enough oxygen-rich blood. Cerebrovascular accident (choice C) is the medical term for a stroke, which occurs when blood flow to a part of the brain is interrupted.
5. A client is starting therapy with docetaxel. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Flushing
- B. Dyspnea
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Tinnitus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea. The nurse should instruct the client to report dyspnea because it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious adverse effect of docetaxel. Dyspnea may be a sign of a potentially life-threatening condition that the healthcare provider needs to address promptly. Flushing (Choice A) is not typically associated with docetaxel therapy. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) is also not a common side effect of docetaxel. Tinnitus (Choice D) is not a usual finding with docetaxel and is not a priority over potential pulmonary toxicity indicated by dyspnea.
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