a nurse is reviewing the health care record of a client who reports urinary incontinence and asks about a prescription for oxybutynin the nurse shoul
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who reports urinary incontinence and asks about a prescription for Oxybutynin. The healthcare provider should recognize that Oxybutynin is contraindicated in the presence of which of the following conditions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that can increase intraocular pressure. It is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma due to the potential to worsen the condition by further elevating intraocular pressure, leading to harm. Choosing option D, Glaucoma, as the correct answer is crucial for the client's safety and to prevent exacerbation of their eye condition. Options A, B, and C are not contraindications for Oxybutynin use and are unrelated to the pharmacological effects of this medication.

2. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Verapamil is to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of Verapamil, leading to increased blood levels of the medication. This can result in a higher risk of adverse effects, such as hypotension and bradycardia. Therefore, it is essential for the client to avoid grapefruit juice while taking Verapamil to prevent potential complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking Verapamil at bedtime, monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia, and increasing potassium-rich foods intake are not specific instructions related to Verapamil therapy and do not address the potential interaction with grapefruit juice.

3. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is a competitive benzodiazepine antagonist that can reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation, administering Flumazenil can help counteract the excessive sedation and other effects of Diazepam, thereby promoting the client's recovery and preventing potential complications. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist, not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines.

4. A client is starting therapy with docetaxel. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea. The nurse should instruct the client to report dyspnea because it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a serious adverse effect of docetaxel. Dyspnea may be a sign of a potentially life-threatening condition that the healthcare provider needs to address promptly. Flushing (Choice A) is not typically associated with docetaxel therapy. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) is also not a common side effect of docetaxel. Tinnitus (Choice D) is not a usual finding with docetaxel and is not a priority over potential pulmonary toxicity indicated by dyspnea.

5. A client is prescribed Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as a sign of potential toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat heart conditions, can lead to toxicity manifesting as bradycardia. Monitoring the client's heart rate closely is crucial to detect potential toxicity early and prevent complications. Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and hypocalcemia are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect.

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