Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer verapamil by IV bolus to a client who is experiencing cardiac dysrhythmias. For which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare professional monitor when giving this medication?

• A. Hyperthermia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Ototoxicity
• D. Muscle pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verapamil is known to cause hypotension as one of its adverse effects due to its vasodilatory properties. Therefore, it is essential for the healthcare professional to monitor the client's blood pressure closely during and after administration to prevent complications such as severe hypotension. Hyperthermia, ototoxicity, and muscle pain are not commonly associated with verapamil administration, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

2. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood glucose 150 mg/dL
• B. Urine output 40 mL/hr
• C. Dyspnea
• D. Bilateral equal pupil size

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, an adverse effect of the medication. It suggests potential fluid overload or exacerbation of heart conditions, both of which require immediate attention. Reporting dyspnea promptly allows for timely evaluation and management. Blood glucose levels and urine output are important parameters to monitor but are not directly related to the administration of Mannitol for increased intracranial pressure. Bilateral equal pupil size is a normal and expected finding.

3. A client is prescribed Amlodipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker known to cause peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it can indicate the development of this side effect. Choice A, Tachycardia, is not a common adverse effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with Amlodipine use. Choice D, Hypertension, is the condition Amlodipine is prescribed to treat, not an adverse effect of the medication.

4. A client is prescribed gentamicin for an infection. Which finding indicates a potential adverse reaction to the medication?

• A. Blood pressure 160/90 mm Hg
• B. Presence of red blood cells in the urine
• C. Urine output of 35 mL/hr
• D. Respiratory rate of 22/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presence of red blood cells in the urine is a significant finding that can indicate nephrotoxicity, a potential adverse effect of gentamicin. Nephrotoxicity can lead to kidney damage, and monitoring for this adverse reaction is crucial during gentamicin therapy. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with gentamicin adverse reactions. Decreased urine output (Choice C) may suggest kidney impairment but is not as specific as the presence of red blood cells in the urine. Respiratory rate (Choice D) is not directly related to potential adverse reactions to gentamicin.

5. What is the antidote for Heparin?

• A. Protamine sulfate
• B. Narcan
• C. Romazicon
• D. Naloxone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protamine sulfate. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots. In cases of overdose or excessive bleeding due to Heparin, protamine sulfate is administered as the specific antidote. Protamine sulfate works by neutralizing Heparin's anticoagulant activity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Narcan (Naloxone) is used to reverse opioid overdose, Romazicon (Flumazenil) is used to reverse benzodiazepine overdose, and Naloxone is also used to reverse opioid overdose but is not the antidote for Heparin.

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