Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional in a provider's clinic is caring for a client who reports erectile dysfunction and requests a prescription for sildenafil. Which of the following medications currently prescribed for the client is a contraindication to taking sildenafil?

• A. Isosorbide
• B. Phenytoin
• C. Metronidazole
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sildenafil is contraindicated with nitrates like isosorbide due to the risk of severe hypotension. Isosorbide is a nitrate that can potentiate the hypotensive effects of sildenafil, leading to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Therefore, it is essential to avoid concurrent use of isosorbide and sildenafil to prevent adverse effects. Phenytoin, metronidazole, and prednisone do not have significant interactions with sildenafil and are not contraindicated when used together.

2. A client has been prescribed Prednisone for asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take this medication with food to prevent nausea.
• B. Take this medication at bedtime to reduce drowsiness.
• C. Take this medication in the morning to reduce insomnia.
• D. Avoid sudden changes in position.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prednisone is best taken in the morning to reduce the risk of insomnia, a common side effect of corticosteroids. Instructing the client to take the medication in the morning aligns with the goal of minimizing the impact of insomnia, which can disrupt sleep patterns and affect overall well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking Prednisone with food does not primarily focus on preventing nausea; taking it at bedtime does not primarily reduce drowsiness, and avoiding sudden changes in position is not a specific instruction related to Prednisone use for asthma.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes a flushing of the neck and tachycardia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Document that the client experienced an anaphylactic reaction to the medication.
• B. Change the IV infusion site.
• C. Decrease the infusion rate on the IV.
• D. Apply cold compresses to the neck area.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flushing and tachycardia are signs of Red Man Syndrome, which can be mitigated by decreasing the infusion rate.

4. A healthcare professional is about to administer Propranolol to a patient. The healthcare professional takes the patient's apical pulse and documents it as 58 bpm. How should the healthcare professional proceed?

• A. Administer the medication as prescribed
• B. Administer half of the normal dose
• C. Consider the extended-release form of the medication
• D. Withhold administration of the medication and notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient's apical pulse is 58 bpm, it is below the normal range. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can further lower the heart rate. Therefore, it is crucial to withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider to evaluate the patient's condition. Administering Propranolol in this situation can exacerbate bradycardia, leading to serious complications. Choosing to administer the medication as prescribed (Choice A) can put the patient at risk. Administering half of the normal dose (Choice B) without healthcare provider guidance is not appropriate in this case. Considering the extended-release form of the medication (Choice C) does not address the immediate concern of bradycardia and is not the best course of action.

5. How do ACE inhibitors work?

• A. Block the vasoconstrictor and aldosterone effects of angiotensin II at the receptor site
• B. Block stimulation of beta 1 and beta 2 at the receptor sites
• C. Block the conversion of angiotensin I to the vasoconstrictor angiotensin II
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: ACE inhibitors work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by blocking its production, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload of the heart. Choice A is incorrect because it describes the mechanism of action of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), not ACE inhibitors. Choice B is incorrect as it describes beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do have a specific mechanism of action.

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