Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is administering a Dopamine infusion at a low dose to a client with severe heart failure. Which of the following findings is an expected effect of this medication?

• A. Lowered heart rate
• B. Increased myocardial contractility
• C. Decreased conduction through the AV node
• D. Vasoconstriction of renal blood vessels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dopamine, when administered at a low dose, is expected to increase myocardial contractility by stimulating beta1 receptors. This positive inotropic effect leads to an increase in cardiac output. Therefore, the correct answer is increased myocardial contractility, as it is a desired effect of administering dopamine to a client with severe heart failure.

2. Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of tendon dysfunction?

• A. Digitalis
• B. Niacin
• C. Tetracycline
• D. Fluoroquinolones

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fluoroquinolones are known to be associated with tendon dysfunction or rupture. These drugs can weaken the tendons, leading to potential issues such as tendonitis or even tendon rupture. It is essential for healthcare providers to be cautious when prescribing fluoroquinolones, especially in patients who may be at higher risk for tendon-related complications.

3. During an assessment, a male client who has recently started taking Haloperidol is displaying certain symptoms. Which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize in reporting to the provider?

• A. Shuffling gait
• B. Neck spasms
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Impotence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are indicative of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that requires urgent intervention. Immediate reporting to the provider is crucial to address this potentially harmful condition and ensure the client's safety. Shuffling gait, drowsiness, and impotence are important to monitor but do not pose the same level of immediate risk as acute dystonia. Acute dystonia can lead to serious complications if not promptly treated, making it the priority in this scenario.

4. When teaching a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin patches, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch at the same time every day.
• B. Rotate the application site daily.
• C. Remove the patch for 12 hours each day.
• D. Cut the patch in half if needed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin patches is to rotate the application site daily. This is important to prevent skin irritation and ensure optimal absorption of the medication. Applying the patch at the same time every day (Choice A) is not necessary for nitroglycerin patches. Removing the patch for 12 hours each day (Choice C) would disrupt the continuous delivery of medication. Cutting the patch in half (Choice D) can alter the dose and is not recommended unless directed by a healthcare provider.

5. When teaching a client with a new prescription for furosemide, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication in the morning.
• B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for furosemide, a diuretic, is to take it in the morning to prevent nocturia. Taking it in the morning helps to prevent frequent urination during the night, allowing the client to have uninterrupted sleep. This timing also coincides with the body's natural diuretic response, which is typically more active during the day. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding foods high in potassium, taking it on an empty stomach, or limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

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