Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed a calcium channel blocker for angina. The nurse knows this medication should NOT be used with caution in combination with which drug classes?

• A. NSAIDs
• B. Cardiac glycosides
• C. Beta blockers
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calcium channel blockers and beta blockers should be used with caution together because they can both suppress heart function, potentially leading to bradycardia, heart block, or heart failure. NSAIDs and cardiac glycosides do not have significant interactions with calcium channel blockers in the same way, so they are not typically a cause for concern when combined.

2. When using Nitroglycerine (transdermal), how many hours should you be nitrate-free each day?

• A. 1-2 hours
• B. 5-10 hours
• C. 3-4 hours
• D. 10-12 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When using Nitroglycerine (transdermal), it should be applied for 10-12 hours per day to ensure its effectiveness. A nitrate-free period within the day is essential to prevent the development of tolerance to the medication.

3. A client is prescribed Diltiazem. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its negative chronotropic properties, slowing down the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia by regularly assessing the heart rate to prevent potential complications. Monitoring for tachycardia (choice A) is incorrect as diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia. Hypertension (choice C) is not a typical finding to monitor for with diltiazem use. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is not directly associated with diltiazem administration.

4. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for a Fentanyl transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to a hairy area.
• B. Change the patch every 24 hours.
• C. Avoid exposure to heat sources.
• D. Cut the patch to adjust the dosage.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include when providing discharge instructions for a client with a Fentanyl transdermal patch is to avoid exposure to heat sources. Heat can increase the absorption of the medication, leading to a risk of overdose. Choice A is incorrect because the patch should be applied to a clean, non-hairy area. Choice B is incorrect as the Fentanyl patch is usually changed every 72 hours, not every 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect as the patch should never be cut to adjust the dosage.

5. A client has a prescription for Heparin. Which of the following laboratory tests should be monitored while the client is receiving Heparin?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Complete blood count (CBC)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the correct laboratory test to monitor while a client is receiving Heparin. This test is used to assess the therapeutic levels of heparin in the blood, ensuring that the dose is within the safe and effective range. Monitoring aPTT helps healthcare providers adjust the dosage of Heparin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting.

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