a nurse is caring for a client who has streptococcal pneumonia and a prescription for penicillin g by intermittent iv bolus 10 minutes into the infusi
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A client with streptococcal pneumonia is receiving penicillin G by intermittent IV bolus. 10 minutes into the infusion of the third dose, the client reports itching at the IV site, dizziness, and shortness of breath. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting signs of anaphylaxis, a severe allergic reaction. The priority action for the nurse is to stop the infusion immediately to prevent further administration of the allergen and worsening symptoms. Once the infusion is stopped, the nurse can then proceed with additional interventions, such as calling the provider, assessing the client's respiratory status, and providing appropriate care as needed.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of individuals who are not immune to Varicella. The healthcare provider should prepare to administer the Varicella vaccine at this time to which of the following individuals?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the 32-year-old man with essential hypertension. Individuals not immune to Varicella should receive the vaccine if they did not get two doses earlier. Essential hypertension is not a contraindication for the Varicella vaccine. Administering the vaccine to pregnant women, individuals with severe neomycin allergies, or infants is contraindicated. Pregnant women should not receive the Varicella vaccine due to the potential risk to the fetus. Severe neomycin allergies are a contraindication because neomycin is present in the vaccine. Infants under 12 months of age are generally not vaccinated against Varicella unless there are specific circumstances or recommendations.

3. A client has a new prescription for transdermal patches. Which statement should the client make to indicate understanding of the instructions?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Applying the patch to a hairless area of skin is essential for optimal medication absorption. Hair can interfere with the patch's adherence and effectiveness. It is important for the client to choose a site without hair to ensure proper delivery of the medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because cleaning the site with an alcohol swab (Choice A) is a good practice but not the most crucial aspect for transdermal patch application. Rotating application sites weekly (Choice B) is more relevant for injections to prevent skin irritation or breakdown. Placing the new patch on the site of the old patch (Choice D) can lead to skin irritation and poor absorption due to a build-up of medication.

4. Which of the following is classified as a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Quinidine is classified as a class IA sodium channel blocker. Class IA antiarrhythmics, like quinidine, work by blocking sodium channels and delaying repolarization. Propafenone, mentioned in the original rationale, is actually a class IC antiarrhythmic agent, not a class IA sodium channel blocker.

5. A client has a new prescription for erythromycin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Erythromycin should be taken on an empty stomach with a full glass of water to increase absorption. Taking it with a full glass of water (Choice A) is incorrect. Avoiding direct sunlight (Choice B) is not related to erythromycin use. Taking an antacid before the medication (Choice D) can interfere with its absorption.

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