a nurse is caring for a client who has streptococcal pneumonia and a prescription for penicillin g by intermittent iv bolus 10 minutes into the infusi
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A client with streptococcal pneumonia is receiving penicillin G by intermittent IV bolus. 10 minutes into the infusion of the third dose, the client reports itching at the IV site, dizziness, and shortness of breath. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting signs of anaphylaxis, a severe allergic reaction. The priority action for the nurse is to stop the infusion immediately to prevent further administration of the allergen and worsening symptoms. Once the infusion is stopped, the nurse can then proceed with additional interventions, such as calling the provider, assessing the client's respiratory status, and providing appropriate care as needed.

2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Lithium, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining a consistent sodium intake is crucial when taking Lithium to help regulate lithium levels in the body and prevent toxicity. Sodium levels can impact the effectiveness and safety of Lithium therapy. Restricting fluid intake to 1,000 mL per day (Choice A) is not appropriate and could lead to dehydration. Taking the medication at bedtime (Choice C) may vary depending on the individual's schedule but is not a critical instruction. Expecting to have frequent headaches (Choice D) is not a common side effect of Lithium.

3. A healthcare provider is teaching the parents of a school-age child about transdermal Methylphenidate. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering transdermal Methylphenidate, it is important to leave the patch on for 9 hours each day to ensure the medication is effective. This duration allows for proper absorption of the medication through the skin. It is crucial for parents to follow this instruction to achieve the desired therapeutic effect for their child.

4. A client has been prescribed Aspirin for prevention of cardiovascular disease. Which of the following findings indicates the medication is effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A decrease in episodes of angina indicates that Aspirin is effectively preventing the formation of clots that could lead to cardiovascular events. Angina is chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, usually due to coronary artery disease. Aspirin works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, thereby reducing the risk of clot formation in the arteries. Improvement in angina symptoms suggests that the medication is successfully preventing clot-related complications in the cardiovascular system. Monitoring and recognizing a decrease in angina episodes can be a valuable indicator of the medication's efficacy in preventing cardiovascular events. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a decrease in troponin levels, a regular heart rhythm, or stable blood pressure, while important parameters, do not directly reflect the effectiveness of Aspirin in preventing cardiovascular events through antiplatelet action.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, 80 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B, 10 mL, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choices C and D, 6 mL and 12 mL respectively, are also incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the provided concentration and dose.

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